Domain 3 CISSP Exam: Security Architecture and Engineering

Ref:📕The Official ISC2 CISSP CBK Reference 6th Edition

DOMAIN 3: Security Architecture and Engineering

1 / 161

Which type of attack involves deliberately injecting faulty inputs and observing the errors and outputs?

A. Timing attacks

B. Man-in-the-Middle attacks

C. Fault injection attacks

D. Cryptographic attacks

2 / 161

Who is responsible for physical security in a cloud deployment?

A. The cloud service provider

B. The customer

C. Both the cloud service provider and the customer

D. None of the above

3 / 161

What is the key length for the Data Encryption Standard (DES)?

A. 128 bits

B. 72 bits

C. 56 bits

D. 64 bits

4 / 161

Which of the following characteristics of cloud computing describes the ability for services to be rapidly and automatically scaled up or down to meet demand?

A. Broad network access

B. Measured service

C. On-demand self-service

D. Rapid elasticity and scalability

5 / 161

When developing an IoT device, what is a recommended strategy for ensuring that basic security controls are implemented to mitigate vulnerabilities?

A. Review relevant guidelines, conduct threat modeling, and perform QA testing

B. Use default credentials, update the firmware, and perform manual penetration testing

C. Provide autoupdates without consent from the user, ignore known vulnerabilities, and prioritize ease of use over security

D. Rely on the end-user to change the admin credentials and apply firmware updates after purchase

6 / 161

Which of the following is a feature of a cryptoprocessor that enhances its security over standard microprocessors?

A. Multiple attack surfaces

B. Lack of hardware-based cryptographic accelerator

C. Shield layers to prevent eavesdropping on internal signals

D. Vulnerability to hardware tampering

7 / 161

Which of the following Rivest ciphers is vulnerable to chosen-plaintext attacks and should not be used?

A. RC2

B. RC4

C. RC5

D. RC6

8 / 161

Which Privacy by Design principle seeks to build privacy directly into the design, operation, and management of a system or process, rather than considering privacy after the fact?

A. Proactive not Reactive; Preventative not Remedial

B. Privacy as the Default Setting

C. Privacy Embedded into Design

D. End-to-End Security — Full Lifecycle Protection

9 / 161

What is the process of converting a plaintext message into a ciphertext message?

A. Plaintext

B. Cleartext

C. Decryption

D. Encryption

10 / 161

What are the available key lengths for the AES algorithm?

A. 128, 256, and 512 bits

B. 64, 128, and 256 bits

C. 128, 192, and 256 bits

D. 256, 384, and 512 bits

11 / 161

Which block cipher mode of operation processes each block of plaintext independently by the cipher, making identical blocks of plaintext produce identical blocks of ciphertext?

A. ECB

B. CBC

C. CFB

D. CTR

12 / 161

Which of the following is a key consideration in error and exception handling?

A. Displaying internal information in error reports

B. Allowing errors to go undetected

C. Designing systems to fail unsafe

D. Ensuring a secure state even when errors occur

13 / 161

Which algorithm is used for transmitting digital signatures and key exchanges in an asymmetric-key approach and is derived from the Diffie-Hellman-Merkle algorithm?

A. RSA

B. ElGamal

C. ECC

D. Diffie-Hellman-Merkle algorithm is used for encryption and decryption

14 / 161

What is the function of a key in cryptography?

A. The key determines message authenticity

B. The key determines the behavior of the cryptographic algorithm

C. The key is used to convert ciphertext to plaintext

D. The key encrypts the message

15 / 161

What is the goal of security architecture and engineering?

A. To ensure compliance with industry regulations

B. To reduce security risks to an acceptable level and protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of systems or business

C. To completely eliminate security risks

D. To implement technical security controls to address all known security issues or requirements.

16 / 161

What is the difference between white-box, black-box, and gray-box testing?

A. White-box testing is done by testers with no knowledge of the systems internals, black-box testing is done by testers with detailed knowledge of the system, and gray-box testing is done by automated tools

B. White-box testing is done by testers with detailed knowledge of the system, black-box testing is done by testers with no knowledge of the systems internals, and gray-box testing is done by a combination of automated tools and manual inspection

C. White-box testing is done by automated tools, black-box testing is done by manual inspection, and gray-box testing is done by testers with some knowledge of the system, but not all

D. White-box testing is done by automated tools, black-box testing is done by manual inspection, and gray-box testing is done by testers with detailed knowledge of the system

17 / 161

Which of the following is an example of an implementation attack in cryptography?

A. Chosen plaintext attack

B. Frequency analysis

C. Side-channel attack

D. Chosen ciphertext attack

18 / 161

Which of the following is exclusively the responsibility of the cloud service provider in the cloud shared responsibility model?

A. Vulnerability and patch management

B. Configuration management

C. Physical security

D. Network configuration and security

19 / 161

What mode of operation is best for parallelizing the encryption process and decrypting a single block of ciphertext?

A. ECB

B. CBC

C. CFB

D. CTR

20 / 161

Which rule in the Bell- LaPadula Model prevents a subject from writing to an object at a lower security level?

A. Simple Security Property (ss property)

B. Star Property (* property)

C. Discretionary-Security Property

D. Trusted Subject Property

21 / 161

Which rule in the Take-Grant model allows a subject to revoke rights it has on an object?

A. Take

B. Grant

C. Create

D. Remove

22 / 161

What is the concept behind a security kernel?

A. A small separate subsystem with the most complex components.

B. A small separate subsystem with the security-critical components.

C. An integrated subsystem to manage and monitor security risks.

D. An external subsystem to outsource security services.

23 / 161

What is a recommended approach for handling encryption/decryption in application-level encryption?

A. Handle decryption completely externally to the database

B. Handle encryption/decryption as close to the point of use as possible

C. Pass encryption/decryption through the storage management layer

D. Encrypt data at the cell or column level

24 / 161

Which of the following is not considered as one of the foundational information system security capabilities?

A. Memory protection

B. Trusted Platform Modules (TPMs)

C. Cryptographic modules

D. Firewall

25 / 161

What is a possible risk of placing network switches and other intermediate distribution equipment in any convenient out-of-the-way location, sharing space with other building infrastructure?

A. Electrical interference from other building infrastructure can cause random resets, errors or total failure in the worst case

B. Network performance will be slower due to interference from other building infrastructure

C. None of the above

D. The network switches and other intermediate distribution equipment will be easy to troubleshoot in case of problems

26 / 161

Which of the following is an example of the Full Functionality – Positive-Sum, not Zero-Sum principle of Privacy by Design (PbD)?

A. Limiting functionality of a system to enhance privacy

B. Allowing third-party access to user data without consent

C. Implementing internet cookies in a secure and private manner

D. Failing to design and implement privacy measures from the beginning

27 / 161

According to the cloud shared responsibility model, who is responsible for vulnerability and patch management for a cloud-based system?

A. The cloud service provider

B. The customer

C. Both the cloud service provider and the customer

D. None of the above

28 / 161

Which type of attack involves an attacker being able to submit any ciphertext and obtain the corresponding plaintext?

A. Chosen Plaintext Attack

B. Frequency Analysis Attack

C. Chosen Ciphertext Attack

D. Side-Channel Attack

29 / 161

Which topic is not covered in DOMAIN 3: Security Architecture and Engineering?

A. Vulnerability management

B. Cryptography

C. Information security governance

D. Site and facility design

30 / 161

What is the Star Integrity Property according to the Biba integrity model?

A. It is a rule that prevents higher integrity processes from using lower integrity sources.

B. It is a rule that prevents lower privilege subjects from accessing more secure information.

C. It is a rule that prevents lower privilege subjects from corrupting more secure information.

D. It is a rule that prevents higher privilege subjects from accessing less secure information.

31 / 161

What is encapsulation in security architecture?

A. It is an architectural concept where objects are accessed only through functions that logically separate functions that are abstracted from their underlying object by inclusion or information hiding within higher level objects.

B. It is the removal of unnecessary information or functionality, making an object or system as simple as possible while still achieving the necessary functionality.

C. It is a mechanism that protects sensitive data by making it accessible only to authorized parties who have a specific set of credentials

D. It is a process of comparing the environment, data flow, and data storage requirements of an application with a set of standards.

32 / 161

What is a necessary part of cloud hosting availability designs that can take full advantage of highly available remote infrastructures?

A. Redundant network routes and hardware that can stay online through a local or regional disaster

B. Relying on a single CSP for their operations

C. Outsourcing to another location to prevent organizations from having to do the work

D. Not doing any work to assess environmental risks for a cloud or third-party hosting

33 / 161

What is the advantage of asymmetric or public key cryptography over symmetric encryption?

A. Asymmetric encryption requires only one key to encrypt and decrypt data

B. Asymmetric encryption requires less computational power than symmetric encryption

C. Asymmetric encryption allows for the encryption of data using a public key that can only be decrypted by its corresponding private key

D. Asymmetric encryption does not require the sharing of keys between parties

34 / 161

What is the process of turning a plaintext message into ciphertext?

A. Decryption

B. Cleartext

C. Encryption

D. Cryptographic algorithm

35 / 161

What is a lattice in security models?

A. A set of security levels with a flexible ordering

B. A set of security levels with a fixed ordering

C. A set of security levels without any ordering

D. A set of security levels that cannot be changed

36 / 161

What is the best method for generating high-quality random numbers for key generation?

A. Using software-based random number generators

B. Using hardware-based true random number generators

C. Using a combination of hardware and software-based random number generators

D. Using manual methods for generating random numbers

37 / 161

Which of the following procedures check and ensure that all Constrained data items (CDIs) are valid in the Clark-Wilson Model?

A. Transformation procedures (TPs)

B. Unconstrained data item (UDI)

C. Integrity verification procedures (IVPs)

D. Separation of duties

38 / 161

Which of the following statements about Separation of Duties (SoD) is true?

A. Separation of duties is only suitable for financial accounting practices and not for information security controls

B. Security controls that require the active participation of two or more individuals are less robust and more susceptible to failure than those that do not

C. SoD requires two (or more) actions, actors or components to operate independently during a security-sensitive operation

D. SoD is not suitable for every control or mandated by every risk, and can make security more likely to be compromised by a single mistake or rogue actor

39 / 161

Which of the following is a key data type in the Clark–Wilson model, and refers to data whose integrity must be preserved?

A. Unconstrained data item (UDI)

B. Well-formed transaction

C. Constrained data item (CDI)

D. Integrity verification procedures (IVPs)

40 / 161

Which of the following is an advantage of wet-pipe water sprinkler systems?

A. They release water through all sprinkler heads regardless of the location of the fire.

B. They are used in warehouses and parking garages exposed to freezing temperatures.

C. They have an increased risk of accidental release from faulty sprinkler heads or physical damage.

D. They limit water damage as they release water only through sprinkler heads closest to the fire.

41 / 161

Which stage of the PASTA methodology is intended to identify and analyze threat information from within the system and externally available threat intelligence that is related to the system?

A. Stage 1: Define Objectives

B. Stage 3: Application Decomposition

C. Stage 4: Threat Analysis

D. Stage 6: Attack Modeling

42 / 161

Which of the following is a feature of secure cryptoprocessors that enhance their security, that standard microprocessors do not have?

A. Automatic firmware updates for added security

B. Ability to access any device and memory location

C. Limited interface to limit attack surface

D. Built-in antivirus software

43 / 161

What is the purpose of layering in a security architecture?

A. To make it easier for higher levels to bypass lower levels

B. To ensure that higher levels always have more privilege than a lower level

C. To create the ability to impose specific security policies at each layer and simplify functionality for easier validation

D. To ensure that security policies at higher levels are more easily bypassed

44 / 161

What is pass the ticket in the context of Kerberos exploitation?

A. The process of an attacker trying to guess weak passwords in order to authenticate to a resource

B. The process of an attacker using malware to exploit system vulnerabilities in Kerberos

C. The process of an attacker forging a ticket and passing it along to authenticate to a resource

D. The process of an attacker bypassing Kerberos authentication by accessing resources without proper authorization

45 / 161

As a security architect, what is your responsibility regarding cryptanalytic attacks?

A. You are responsible for developing new cryptographic algorithms

B. You are responsible for testing existing ciphers

C. You need to understand how cryptography can be attacked to identify vulnerabilities and ensure your design avoids or mitigates those risks

D. You need to worry about subtleties such as related key attacks on symmetric ciphers

46 / 161

What is the Take-Grant models Grant operation?

A. Allows a subject to obtain the rights of another object

B. Allows a subject to give rights to an object

C. Allows a subject to generate a new object

D. Allows a subject to revoke rights it has on an object

47 / 161

What is the role of auditing when dealing with third parties, as described in the Trust, but Verify concept?

A. Auditing is unnecessary when dealing with third parties, as long as there is a certain level of trust established to execute day-to-day business operations.

B. Auditing is only necessary when dealing with cloud providers, as they share compliance reports and other artifacts.

C. Auditing is needed periodically to ensure third party relationships continue operating as agreed upon and expected.

D. Auditing is useful only when there are major changes in the operations of third party relationships, to ensure ongoing compliance and secure functionality.

48 / 161

What is the most important factor to consider when designing a fire safety system?

A. Protecting technology infrastructure

B. Reducing restoration costs

C. Protecting the lives and health of those who work in the facility

D. Minimizing fire suppression system costs

49 / 161

What is one of the core principles of zero trust architecture?

A. Always trust everything outside and inside the perimeter

B. Assign maximum rights for the specific access requested

C. Always verify and authenticate every access request

D. Assume the best-case scenario that youre never breached

50 / 161

Which of the following operations in the Take-Grant protection model allows a subject to revoke (or remove) rights it has on an object?

A. Take

B. Grant

C. Create

D. Remove

51 / 161

What is virtualization?

A. The provision of an environment that functions like a single dedicated computer environment but supports multiple such environments on the same physical hardware

B. The emulation of one device on another

C. The process of encrypting data before storing it

D. The process of creating security protocols to protect against attacks

52 / 161

What is one of the more secure methods of protecting keys, especially for highly regulated organizations like banks or payment processors?

A. Storing them in a password management app.

B. Storing them in a secrets management package.

C. Using an HSM.

D. Replicating them between redundant servers.

53 / 161

Which principle of the CIA Triad is supported by cryptographys use of digital signatures and certificates?

A. Confidentiality

B. Integrity

C. Availability

D. Authenticity and nonrepudiation

54 / 161

What is the split-brain problem in a distributed system?

A. A lack of homogeneity in subsystems

B. Disruption or delay in communication between connected subsystems

C. Failure to protect against DoS attacks

D. Poor encryption and authentication on connections between subsystems

55 / 161

What is the primary risk to the nonrepudiation property?

A. The use of a trusted timestamp

B. The use of a public key

C. The use of a private key

D. The use of a Time Stamping Authority

56 / 161

What is the primary reason why security should be incorporated into the design process?

A. To prevent components of the system from being tampered with

B. To prevent the user from performing unauthorized actions

C. To ensure the security controls are implemented correctly during testing

D. To save cost and prevent the need for redesigning components of the system

57 / 161

What is a cryptographic algorithm?

A. The input that controls the operation of the cryptographic algorithm

B. The message in readable, usable form that is not intended to be obscured by cryptographic means.

C. A mathematical function that is used in the encryption and decryption process.

D. The altered form of a plaintext message, so as to be unreadable for anyone except the intended recipients.

58 / 161

What should be covered by controls to ensure the proper operation and security of server rooms and data centers?

A. Physical access risks and fire risks only.

B. Personnel, logging, monitoring, and alerting only.

C. HVAC and environmental risks only.

D. Personnel, maintenance, logging, monitoring, and alerting, and control testing and auditing.

59 / 161

What is the purpose of creating security zones with different security levels within a facility?

A. To provide a clear path for unauthorized individuals to reach high-security areas without causing suspicion.

B. To ensure the security controls applied in high-security areas are also applied to low-security areas.

C. To limit access to sensitive or high-risk assets or work based on the employees clearance level and implement different types of security controls according to the security level of each area.

D. To create a hierarchy of security levels that imposes the same rigor and tolerable rate of false positives regardless of the sensitivity of the assets or work in the zone.

60 / 161

Which public key algorithm is based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves and allows smaller keys to be used for equivalent security compared to other public key algorithms?

A. RSA

B. Diffie-Hellman-Merkle Key Exchange

C. ElGamal

D. Elliptic Curve Cryptography

61 / 161

Which of the following Rivest ciphers is vulnerable to chosen-plaintext attacks and should not be used?

A. RC4

B. RC2

C. RC5

D. RC6

62 / 161

What are the two types of stream ciphers?

A. Asynchronous and synchronous

B. Self-synchronizing and asynchronous

C. Synchronous and self-synchronizing

D. One-time pad and self-synchronizing

63 / 161

Which of the following is an important defense against Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attacks?

A. Adding more firewalls to the network

B. Using complex encryption algorithms

C. Verifying the origin of incoming messages

D. Installing antivirus software on devices

64 / 161

What is one of the main uses of cryptography in information security?

A. To protect the availability of information

B. To protect the integrity of information

C. To protect the confidentiality of information

D. To protect the authenticity of information

65 / 161

What is the principle of zero trust architecture that requires every access request to be fully authenticated, authorized, and encrypted before granting access?

A. Always verify

B. Assume breach

C. Use least privilege access

D. Microsegmentation

66 / 161

Which of the following cryptographic applications provides assurance of data integrity?

A. Nonrepudiation through digital signatures

B. Authentication services

C. Hashing algorithms and message digest

D. Digital certificates

67 / 161

What is an important technique that can be used to validate the identity of a client and/or user of the client, and also protect the server from eavesdropping and tampering?

A. Role-based access control (RBAC)

B. Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

C. Secure communications protocol such as TLS using client-side certificates

D. Vulnerability management program

68 / 161

Which block cipher mode of operation encrypts the IV and then XORs it with the first block of plaintext to produce the first block of ciphertext?

A. ECB mode

B. CBC mode

C. CFB mode

D. CTR mode

69 / 161

Which of the following procedures enforce a systems integrity policy and maintain the integrity of Constrained data items (CDIs) in the Clark-Wilson Model?

A. Integrity verification procedures (IVPs)

B. Transformation procedures (TPs)

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

70 / 161

What is the main difference between the Diffie-Hellman-Merkle algorithm and RSA?

A. The Diffie-Hellman-Merkle algorithm is used for encryption and decryption, while RSA is used for generating shared secret keys.

B. The Diffie-Hellman-Merkle algorithm is based on logarithmic mathematics, while RSA is based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves.

C. The Diffie-Hellman-Merkle algorithm is a public key algorithm, while RSA is a symmetric-key algorithm.

D. The Diffie-Hellman-Merkle algorithm is used for generating shared secret keys, while RSA is used for encrypting and signing data.

71 / 161

What is the purpose of a security model?

A. To complicate the assessment of a system

B. To simplify the analysis of a system by providing clear rules to follow

C. To make the analysis of a system impossible

D. To develop various policies for a system

72 / 161

Which PbD principle encourages system architects to prioritize the interests of the individual by providing strong privacy defaults, appropriate notice, and a user-friendly experience?

A. Proactive not Reactive; Preventative not Remedial

B. Privacy as the Default Setting

C. Respect for User Privacy — Keep it User-Centric

D. Full Functionality — Positive-Sum, not Zero-Sum

73 / 161

What does the shared responsibility model describe?

A. How to secure traditional data centers

B. The responsibilities of a cloud service provider and its customers in securing cloud systems and data

C. How to secure cloud service types

D. None of the above

74 / 161

What are the three most commonly used approaches to threat modeling?

A. STRIKE, DREAD, and PESTO

B. STRIDE, DREAD, and PASTA

C. STRIKE, DREE, and POSTA

D. STRIDE, DRAD, and PASTO

75 / 161

Which of the following is NOT a category of client-based vulnerabilities in a traditional client-server system?

A. Vulnerabilities related to the insecure operation of the client

B. Vulnerabilities related to communications with the server

C. Vulnerabilities related to the hardware on which the client runs

D. Vulnerabilities related to the client application itself

76 / 161

Which of the following is true about side-channel attacks?

A. They involve measuring artifacts of the cryptographic process to deduce information to assist with compromising encrypted information.

B. They study the frequency of characters in ciphertext.

C. They occur when the attacker is able to submit any plaintext the attacker chooses and obtain the corresponding ciphertext.

D. They exploit implementation weaknesses such as in software, hardware, or the encryption algorithm itself.

77 / 161

Frequency analysis is most effective against which type of cryptographic approach?

A. Modern cryptographic algorithms

B. Chosen Ciphertext

C. Implementation attacks

D. Substitution ciphers

78 / 161

What is an information flow model?

A. A model that defines the flow of physical objects within a system

B. A model that defines the flow of information within a system

C. A model that defines the flow of electricity within a system

D. A model that defines the flow of air within a system

79 / 161

Which of the following is the best way to recover from a ransomware attack?

A. Paying the fee requested by the attacker

B. Restricting user access to the system

C. Regularly backing up data and storing it securely

D. Installing trusted antimalware software

80 / 161

Which of the following is a defense against stored dictionary or rainbow table attacks?

A. Hashing complexity

B. Salting

C. Encryption using a symmetric cipher

D. Multi-factor authentication

81 / 161

What is a core principle of the zero trust model?

A. Trust but verify

B. Always grant maximum privileges

C. Always verify

D. Assume all devices are trustworthy

82 / 161

What are the five key points of the DREAD model?

A. Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Crisis recovery

B. Denial of service, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability

C. Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability

D. Denial of service, Resilience, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability

83 / 161

Which of the following is the process of converting a ciphertext message back into plaintext using the appropriate key that was used to do the original encryption?

A. Plaintext

B. Cleartext

C. Decryption

D. Cryptographic algorithm

84 / 161

What is a known-plaintext attack?

A. An attack where the attacker knows the encrypted text but not the plaintext

B. An attack where the attacker has access to the network logs

C. An attack where the attacker injects malicious code in the plaintext

D. An attack where the attacker knows some or all of the plaintext of one or more messages (as well as the ciphertext)

85 / 161

What is decryption in cryptography?

A. The process of converting a plaintext message into ciphertext

B. The process of converting a ciphertext message back into plaintext

C. The process of generating a key to control the operation of the cryptographic algorithm

D. The process of altering a plaintext message to be unreadable

86 / 161

What is the purpose of memory protection in the context of system security?

A. To ensure that only the operating system can access memory on the system

B. To prevent a program from accessing memory not specifically assigned to it

C. To randomize the location of memory addresses to prevent exploits

D. To limit a programs access to memory once it has been loaded

87 / 161

What is defense in depth in cybersecurity?

A. Applying a single layer of security technologies and strategies to protect the system

B. The assumption that all security controls have already been breached

C. Applying multiple layers of security technologies and strategies to achieve greater overall protection

D. Using only one type of security control for better protection

88 / 161

What type of attack targets an authentication protocol by passing a password hash through for authentication?

A. Brute force attack

B. Social engineering attack

C. Pass the hash attack

D. Man-in-the-middle attack

89 / 161

Which rule in the Bell-Lapadula model prevents an authorized subject from writing sensitive information to an object at a lower security level?

A. Simple Security Property

B. * Property

C. Discretionary-Security Property

D. None of the above

90 / 161

Which of the following is one of the seven Privacy by Design (PbD) principles that requires security and privacy of personal data from cradle to grave, with encryption and authentication being standard at every stage?

A. Proactive not Reactive; Preventative not Remedial

B. Privacy Embedded into Design

C. End-to-End Security — Full Lifecycle Protection

D. Respect for User Privacy — Keep it User-Centric

91 / 161

Which PbD principle encourages system designers to keep the interests of individual users as their utmost priority by providing strong privacy defaults, appropriate notice, and a user-friendly experience?

A. Proactive not Reactive; Preventative not Remedial

B. Privacy as the Default Setting

C. Respect for User Privacy — Keep it User-Centric

D. Visibility and Transparency — Keep it Open

92 / 161

What is a Type 1 hypervisor?

A. It is a computing layer that allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single piece of hardware, relying on a host operating system installed on the hardware.

B. A Type 1 hypervisor is the sole installation, acting as a bridge between hardware components and VMs. For this reason, Type 1 hypervisors are also called baremetal hypervisors. They allow multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single piece of hardware, with each operating system viewing the machines resources as its own dedicated resources.

C. It is a software instance of actual computers.

D. It is a software instance of physical networks.

93 / 161

What is a potential weakness of a TPMs security?

A. Encryption and digital signing using internally secured keys

B. Shield layers to prevent eavesdropping on internal signals

C. Dependence on the security of the TPM manufacturer to ensure the confidentiality of the EK

D. A hardware-based cryptographic accelerator

94 / 161

Who is responsible for vulnerability and patch management in a cloud-based system?

A. The customer

B. The cloud service provider

C. Both the customer and the cloud service provider

D. The responsibilities are not clearly defined

95 / 161

According to Privacy by Design, which of the following is true about design systems and processes?

A. They should rely on detecting and responding to privacy incidents once they already occur.

B. They should proactively take action before a privacy incident.

C. They should wait for privacy incidents to occur and then handle them reactively.

D. They should only consider privacy after the fact.

96 / 161

Which operation in the Take-Grant model allows a subject to generate a new object?

A. Take

B. Grant

C. Create

D. Remove

97 / 161

What is the key size for AES-192 block cipher?

A. 56

B. 128

C. 192 (lmao)

D. 256

98 / 161

What is the purpose of scoping guidance within a recommended baseline?

A. To identify deviations from the minimum set of security controls

B. To ensure all security controls are implemented to the same level of depth and maturity

C. To reduce all risks to below the organizations risk threshold

D. To prioritize the implementation of security controls based on risk assessment

99 / 161

What is the main recommendation for users of IoT devices to mitigate risks related to devices with poor design or support?

A. Keep devices behind a firewall

B. Use a reverse NAT router

C. Change default credentials and update firmware

D. Rely on the security of IoT devices

100 / 161

Which of the following is an example of a compliance obligation for security controls in organizations handling government or military classified data?

A. Install firewalls and antivirus software

B. Conduct regular security awareness training for employees

C. Meet the security controls required for the facility security clearance

D. Provide all employees with VPN access

101 / 161

Why is it important to rotate encryption keys?

A. To limit the damage should the key be discovered by an attacker

B. To limit the amount of data encrypted by the same key

C. To limit the time available to the attacker to crack the cipher

D. All of the above

102 / 161

What is the name of the data type in the Clark-Wilson model that refers to data whose integrity must be preserved?

A. Constrained data item (CDI)

B. Unconstrained data item (UDI)

C. Integrity verification procedures (IVPs)

D. Transformation procedures (TPs)

103 / 161

Which type of encryption algorithm works one character or bit at a time?

A. Block cipher

B. Symmetric encryption

C. Stream cipher

D. Public-key encryption

104 / 161

Which Rivest cipher is commonly used in internet protocols such as TLS and SSH?

A. RC2

B. RC4

C. RC5

D. RC6

105 / 161

What cryptographic approach should be used to protect the confidentiality of data in transit?

A. Public key infrastructure

B. Hashing (e.g., Message Authentication Code)

C. Symmetric (possibly aided by asymmetric)

D. Hashing (with salt and pepper)

106 / 161

Which rule in the Bell-LaPadula Model prevents a subject from reading an object at a higher security level?

A. Discretionary-Security Property

B. Simple Security Property

C. Star Property

D. Trust Property

107 / 161

What is the fundamental principle of security architecture that emphasizes the need for employing other controls to prevent failure of confidentiality, integrity, or availability, even if a physical security control fails?

A. Security by design

B. Separation of duties

C. Defense in depth

D. Least privilege

108 / 161

Which rule of the Take-Grant model allows a subject to generate (or create) a new object?

A. Take

B. Grant

C. Create

D. Remove

109 / 161

What is the purpose of a hash function in protecting the integrity of data?

A. To encrypt the data

B. To detect tampering with the data

C. To identify the originator of the data

D. To authenticate the data

110 / 161

What is attack surface minimization in the context of system hardening?

A. The process of adding more network ports and running applications to increase a systems security.

B. The process of blocking network ports, removing system daemons, and ensuring only necessary services are available to reduce the attack surface.

C. The process of increasing a systems vulnerability by allowing more open ports and running applications.

D. The process of simplifying the workflow or operation of services to reduce the complexity of necessary services.

111 / 161

What is virtual machine escape and what can it allow an attacker to do?

A. A programs ability to break out of its VM and directly interact with the underlying host operating system; an attacker can use this to pivot into other VMs or cause service outages for tenants of the host system.

B. A software defect in a hypervisor that permits a program running on one VM to access data on a different VM on the same computer; an attacker can use this to steal data.

C. A security mechanism that ensures only VMs assigned to your account will be permitted to run on the VM host;

D. A security standard that guarantees that virtualized systems are always immune to attack.

112 / 161

Which encryption algorithm is vulnerable to ciphertext-only attacks due to predictable plaintext characteristics such as the language of the message or format of the message, among others?

A. RSA

B. AES

C. WEP

D. HMAC

113 / 161

Which of the following is a threat that occurs when a user claims that they did not perform an action, and there is no evidence to prove otherwise?

A. Spoofing

B. Tampering

C. Repudiation

D. Information disclosure

114 / 161

Which of the following controls ensures that a specific step in a process requires two or more individuals?

A. Separation of duties

B. Dual control

C. Split knowledge

D. Cryptography

115 / 161

What type of fire is a Class C fire extinguisher appropriate for?

A. Ordinary solid combustibles (e.g., paper, wood, and plastic)

B. Flammable liquids and gases (e.g., gasoline)

C. Energized electrical equipment

D. Combustible metals (e.g., lithium metal)

116 / 161

What is a major security concern when using container technology?

A. Installation of unnecessary applications on the host OS

B. Compromise of a container image or the entire container repository

C. Misconfiguration of the container kernel

D. Lack of access controls between containers

117 / 161

Which benefit has led to the adoption of blockchain technology in business applications such as supply chain management?

A. Confidentiality

B. Integrity

C. Availability

D. Nonrepudiation

118 / 161

What are the two major categories of container security risks?

A. Misconfiguration of container management tools and misuse of privileged containers

B. Compromise of a container image or the entire container repository and misuse of a container to attack other containers or the host OS

C. Over-reliance on host operating system security and lack of vulnerability scanning practices

D. Failure to adhere to strict access controls and insufficient container monitoring practices

119 / 161

What type of fire is extinguished by a Class F or K fire extinguisher?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Cooking oils and greases

120 / 161

Which of the following measures pertains to proper cryptographic key management?

A. Allocating the same key to multiple systems

B. Secure key generation

C. Storing the private key along with the encrypted data

D. Allowing a single entity to perform all key management tasks

121 / 161

Which of the following asymmetric key algorithms is derived from the Diffie–Hellman–Merkle algorithm and is used for transmitting digital signatures and key exchanges?

A. RSA

B. ElGamal

C. ECC

D. Diffie-Hellman-Merkle

122 / 161

What is the purpose of centralized parameter validation?

A. To ensure that user input data is never accepted

B. To ensure that parameters are valid and proper when dealing with user input

C. To use multiple libraries to validate user input data

D. To prevent system vulnerabilities by not accepting any input data

123 / 161

What is the (effective) key length of 3DES algorithm?

A. 80 bits

B. 112 bits

C. 168 bits

D. 56 bits

124 / 161

What is one of the key principles to consider when securing microservices?

A. Load balancing

B. Root cause analysis

C. Isolation and defense in depth

D. Encryption

125 / 161

What is cleartext in the context of cryptography?

A. The message in its natural format, which has not been turned into a secret.

B. The altered form of a plaintext message, so as to be unreadable for anyone except the intended recipients.

C. The process of converting the message from its plaintext to ciphertext.

D. A mathematical function that is used in the encryption and decryption process.

126 / 161

What is a security concern for edge computing systems?

A. Edge devices are centrally managed

B. Data must be unencrypted in transit between edge devices and centralized systems

C. Redundancy and failover management of edge computing systems is not important

D. Edge devices do not always receive the same diligence as their centrally managed peers

127 / 161

What is the principle of domain separation in security?

A. All components in a system have the same access rights and privileges.

B. Components with different security attributes should be placed in the same domain.

C. Domains should communicate with each other without any mediation.

D. Components with similar security attributes should be placed in a domain with necessary controls and well-defined and mediated communication channels.

128 / 161

Which of the following can be used to enforce dual control for access to a secure work area?

A. Biometric authentication

B. Guard records or video surveillance

C. Security awareness training

D. Network segmentation

129 / 161

Which of the following is an example of centralized security services in the real world?

A. Distributed access control server

B. Decentralized cryptographic processing

C. Security information and event management (SIEM)

D. Decentralized authentication and authorization

130 / 161

Which of the following is a recommended approach when selecting cryptographic algorithms?

A. Blindly accept defaults

B. Use newly developed algorithms

C. Research and read literature on standardized algorithms

D. Use algorithms that have not been widely scrutinized

131 / 161

What is the purpose of a noninterference model?

A. To ensure that all objects and subjects on a system are able to interact with each other at all times.

B. To prevent any activities that occur at a higher security level from interfering with activities occurring at a lower level.

C. To allow subject A (higher classification) to interfere with subject B (lower classification) without any consequences.

D. To promote information leakage between subjects on a system.

132 / 161

What is the principle of Privacy Embedded into Design?

A. All personal data is automatically protected in all IT systems or business processes, with no added action required by any individual.

B. Privacy measures should be fully integrated components of the system and associated processes, rather than added on after the fact.

C. Design systems and processes to proactively take action before a privacy incident, not afterward.

D. Ensure security and privacy of personal data from cradle to grave; data should be created, managed, and destroyed in a secure fashion.

133 / 161

What type of fire is a Class A fire extinguisher designed to combat?

A. Combustible metals

B. Flammable liquids and gases

C. Ordinary solid combustibles

D. Energized electrical equipment

134 / 161

Which of the following is an important consideration for work area security?

A. Speed of internet connection

B. Location of the restroom

C. Least privilege, need-to-know, separation of duties, dual control, defense in depth, and compliance obligations

D. Brand of coffee in the breakroom

135 / 161

Which of the following is a feature of cryptoprocessors that enhances their security over standard microprocessors?

A. Full interface for unlimited access

B. Lack of tamper detection

C. Hardware-based cryptographic accelerator

D. No protection against eavesdropping

136 / 161

Which of the following Rivest ciphers is vulnerable to chosen-plaintext attacks and should not be used?

A. RC2

B. RC4

C. RC5

D. RC6

137 / 161

What is the Biba integrity models * integrity property?

A. It prevents compromising the integrity of more secure information from a less secure source.

B. It prevents the corruption of more secure information by a less privileged subject.

C. It allows lower integrity processes to access and read data from higher integrity sources.

D. It allows higher integrity processes to write and modify data from lower integrity sources.

138 / 161

Which mode of operation for block ciphers uses an IV combined with a counter value, allowing for parallelization of the encryption process and decryption of a single block of ciphertext?

A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) mode

B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) mode

C. Cipher Feedback (CFB) mode

D. Counter (CTR) mode

139 / 161

Which of the following attacks involves measuring artifacts of the cryptographic process to deduce information to assist with compromising encrypted information?

A. Chosen Plaintext Attack

B. Frequency Analysis

C. Side-Channel Attacks

D. Chosen Ciphertext

140 / 161

What is the purpose of a certificate authority in a public key infrastructure?

A. To encrypt messages between Alice and Bob

B. To sign Alices public key and attest that it belongs to her

C. To create unique symmetric encryption keys for all parties involved

D. To replace public keys with secret symmetric keys

141 / 161

What is the best defense against side-channel attacks?

A. Using custom cryptographic libraries

B. Implementing algorithms yourself

C. Comparing secret strings using non-constant-time comparison routines

D. Using standard cryptographic libraries that have been tested over time for side-channel information leakage

142 / 161

What are the categories of attack surfaces in an embedded system?

A. User interface, physical attacks, sensor attacks, output, and processor attacks

B. User interface, networking, physical attacks, and output attacks

C. Processor attacks, user interface, physical attacks, and output attacks

D. Processor attacks, networking, sensor attacks, and output attacks

143 / 161

What does cryptography help ensure with hashing algorithms and message digest?

A. Data confidentiality

B. Data availability

C. Data integrity

D. Data authenticity

144 / 161

Which Rivest cipher has a variable block size and key size and is considered secure with sufficient rounds of encryption?

A. RC2

B. RC4

C. RC5

D. RC6

145 / 161

Which of the following is not a factor to consider when selecting an appropriate algorithm for the cryptographic lifecycle?

A. The type of cryptography appropriate for the purpose.

B. The specific algorithm.

C. The color of the device it will be used on.

D. The key length.

146 / 161

What is the purpose of fire extinguishers in the server room?

A. To put out any small fires that occur

B. To enable staff to reach an exit in case of fire blocking their path

C. To combat all types of fires in the server room

D. To train staff on how to properly use fire extinguishers

147 / 161

Why is it necessary to replace symmetric keys periodically?

A. To ensure that the amount of data encrypted using a single key is limited

B. To increase the amount of data that can be encrypted using a single key

C. To make cryptographic systems more complex

D. To reduce the cost of key management

148 / 161

What is a timing attack?

A. An attack that injects faulty or erroneous inputs and observes the errors and outputs

B. An attack that compromises a cryptosystem by monitoring the time taken to execute algorithmic functions

C. An attack where the attacker is able to intercept and relay messages between two parties

D. A type of malware that spreads through email attachments

149 / 161

What is the purpose of ensuring consistency in replicated data stores?

A. To ensure that the system can continue to operate in spite of errors or excessive load

B. To eliminate errors in one of the replicated subsystems

C. To trigger a failover to the redundant subsystem

D. To reject the operation and wait for the requester to reissue it

150 / 161

What is the main goal of Privacy by Design?

A. To enhance the use of personal data

B. To establish seven principles for data protection

C. To build privacy directly into the design, operation, and management of a system or process

D. To maximize personal data use

151 / 161

Which type of fire extinguisher is appropriate for a gasoline fire?

A. Class A extinguisher

B. Class B extinguisher

C. Class C extinguisher

D. Class D extinguisher

152 / 161

Which of the following is the principle behind deny all default firewall rules?

A. Access should be based on exclusion (e.g., blocked list)

B. Fail-open design is preferable for systems with sensitive data

C. Fail-secure design prioritizes security over availability

D. Systems should be designed to fail in an open, less secure state

153 / 161

What is the purpose of memory protection?

A. To prevent programs from accessing any memory.

B. To prevent programs from accessing memory they have not been given permission to access.

C. To terminate programs that attempt to reference memory not specifically assigned to it.

D. To prevent side-channel exploits from revealing information about memory that is protected from access.

154 / 161

What is the purpose of the Simple Security Property rule in the Bell-LaPadula model?

A. To prevent an authorized subject from breaching security by writing sensitive information to an object at a lower security level

B. To prevent a subject from reading an object at a higher security level

C. To allow a subject to perform an operation on an object if permitted by the access matrix

D. To prevent covert channels or the possibility of performing permitted operations in a manner that reveals confidential information through side channels

155 / 161

What is a challenge specific to industrial control in terms of security?

A. Industrial process equipment is designed to operate for 10 to 20 years and longer

B. Reliance on commercial off-the-shelf operating systems increases the known attack surface for many ICS implementations

C. Providing adequate security while air-gapping the networks used by industrial control devices

D. The difficulty of patching device firmware to address vulnerabilities in the software discovered after placing the device into production in the field

156 / 161

What is the principle of least privilege referring to?

A. Granting access to all employees

B. Restricting access to only those items necessary for the authorized task

C. Providing continuous access to systems and data

D. Eliminating the need for access controls

157 / 161

What is the term for having completely redundant UPS systems from separate utility feeds all the way to the rack?

A. 1N

B. 2N

C. 3N

D. 4N

158 / 161

What was the Mirai distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack about?

A. It involved a worm that searched for vulnerable IoT devices and installed antivirus software on them.

B. It was a phishing scam that tricked users into downloading malware onto their IoT devices.

C. It was a type of ransomware that accessed IoT devices and demanded payment to release control.

D. It involved a worm that searched for vulnerable IoT devices and infected them with malware to carry out DDoS attacks.

159 / 161

What is the necessary procedure for securely destroying a retired key?

A. Keep the key as a backup in case it is needed in the future

B. Change the key to a different encryption algorithm

C. Locate every copy of the key and delete it in a manner appropriate for the media on which it was stored to ensure that it cannot be recovered

D. Encrypt the key again and store it in a different location

160 / 161

Which of the following is an important consideration for media storage facilities?

A. Adequate lighting

B. Controlling employee access to the facility

C. Proper environmental controls for temperature and humidity

D. Location near a major transportation hub

161 / 161

Which of the following organizations provides a series of guides called Critical Infrastructure Protection (CIP) standards for industrial control systems?

A. ISA/IEC-62443

B. ERNCIP

C. NIST

D. NERC

Your score is

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Secure System Design Principles
Security Capabilities of Information Systems
Security Assessment and Testing
Physical Security Measures

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