Domain 7 CISSP Exam: Security Operations

DOMAIN 7: Security Operations

1 / 164

What is the purpose of labels to classify data?

2 / 164

What is the preferred type of copy for collecting digital evidence according to best practices in domain 7?

3 / 164

What additional security and training should personnel receive on devices containing organization data while traveling?

4 / 164

What is the process of discovering relationships between data in a SIEM tool called?

5 / 164

Which of the following is not a useful source of information when conducting digital forensics on a Linux system?

6 / 164

Which of the following is an example of using allow list/deny list in network security?

7 / 164

What is the main purpose of testing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

8 / 164

What is one reason why it is important to follow playbooks, checklists, or other prepared reaction guides during the mitigation phase of an incident?

9 / 164

Which of the following is an example of an artifact that can be useful to a forensic investigator on a Linux system?

10 / 164

Which of the following is a key difference between vulnerability scanning and red teaming when it comes to detecting vulnerabilities?

11 / 164

Which of the following metrics measures the amount of data loss tolerable when a disaster occurs, usually expressed as a number of transactions or data points?

12 / 164

Which of the following is a control for securing physical media in transit?

13 / 164

Which of the following is a source of threat intelligence that provides the data in an easily consumable feed accessible via an application programming interface (API), which can be integrated with SIEM and SOAR tools?

14 / 164

What are tactical details generated by threat hunters, commonly known as?

15 / 164

What tools and processes are responsible for detecting an incident and generating alerts or signals to security analysts?

16 / 164

Which type of firewall is designed to handle specific types of traffic destined for a web application or an applications API and can be useful for mitigating complex attacks such as SQL injection?

17 / 164

What should be a primary focus when controlling access to external facilities?

18 / 164

What is one of the principles that all evidence should adhere to?

19 / 164

What is one of the drawbacks of using an MSSP for security services?

20 / 164

What is the benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) for provisioning?

21 / 164

What should be considered by organizations when deciding whether to retain an investigation and forensic team internally or to use external vendors?

22 / 164

What additional authentication mechanism is appropriate for privileged accounts?

23 / 164

What is the purpose of sensors deployed at ingress and egress points?

24 / 164

What is the purpose of documenting lessons learned after an incident is remediated?

25 / 164

Which of the following tools is used to prevent radio communications to or from a physical device?

26 / 164

Which of the following is true of standard changes in change management?

27 / 164

Which of the following is a responsibility of security practitioners in security operations?

28 / 164

What is the primary purpose of fire detection and suppression controls in operational facilities according to the text?

29 / 164

What are Faraday containers used for in digital forensics?

30 / 164

What is one of the best practices for collecting digital evidence?

31 / 164

What is the purpose of a formal change approval process in configuration management?

32 / 164

What is the preferred type of copy during digital evidence collection?

33 / 164

Which of the following is an example of a scenario that can be used to test an organizations disaster response capabilities?

34 / 164

Which type of software tool is commonly used by investigators to reconstruct the series of events that led up to an incident?

35 / 164

What are the two types of inventory controls discussed in the text?

36 / 164

What is the purpose of egress monitoring?

37 / 164

What is the purpose of hashing data written to removable media during transit?

38 / 164

What is the purpose of formal reporting to management and decision-makers during incident response?

39 / 164

What is the purpose of remediation in the context of security operations?

40 / 164

Which of the following is a useful source of information for an investigator on a Windows system?

41 / 164

What is the purpose of write blockers and drive imagers used in digital forensics?

42 / 164

What is one of the principles that evidence and documentation must adhere to in order to be considered reliable?

43 / 164

What type of firewall combines multiple security functions into a single device, including a stateful firewall and API gateway, and may include advanced analytics based on artificial intelligence or external threat data?

44 / 164

What is an effective way of detecting duress?

45 / 164

What are video and audio recording tools primarily used for in digital forensics work?

46 / 164

Which of the following best describes the goal of recovery versus the goal of restoration in the context of disaster recovery?

47 / 164

What is an advantage of using immutable infrastructure for configuration management?

48 / 164

What is an essential element that security practitioners need to ensure to plan for, communicate and convey in emergency management procedures?

49 / 164

Which of the following is a unique security consideration for data centers?

50 / 164

Which of the following is true about emergency changes in change management process?

51 / 164

Which framework provides critical requirements for securely managing log data?

52 / 164

What is the main goal of Security Operations?

53 / 164

What is an SLA?

54 / 164

Which of the following is an example of evidence that could be collected while investigating a security incident, according to Domain 7 of the CISSP exam?

55 / 164

What should a policy dictate when there are multiple files or datasets in an information system, each with different classification levels?

56 / 164

Which of the following is a principle of evidence that requires that evidence and documentation must not contain errors, be in conflict with other evidence, or lack integrity?

57 / 164

Which of the following is a source of standard security baselines that is based on global best practices and provides suggestions for hardening and baseline configurations for vendors products?

58 / 164

Which of the following is a function of SIEM?

59 / 164

What is the primary purpose of using virtual machines in a forensic investigation?

60 / 164

What is the main goal of physically walking through response steps in a walkthrough according to the text?

61 / 164

What is the 3-2-1 backup strategy?

62 / 164

Which of the following is usually an automated activity designed to detect known vulnerabilities like insecure configurations or unpatched software?

63 / 164

What is a recommended practice for managing privileged accounts during the use phase?

64 / 164

Operational threat hunting seeks to understand the _________ of attackers?

65 / 164

What is the primary goal of recovery in security operations?

66 / 164

Which of the following is a defining feature of internal security controls?

67 / 164

What is a useful source of information for forensics investigation for Windows systems?

68 / 164

Which of the following is a tool used to observe the functioning of a program at the source-code level?

69 / 164

What is the key difference between an IDS and an IPS?

70 / 164

Which of the following should be done to select appropriate controls for media management according to an organizations classification policy?

71 / 164

Which of the following is the primary purpose of hashing tools in forensic investigations?

72 / 164

Which of the following is an important aspect of physical access controls for operational facilities?

73 / 164

Which of the following is a tool that can be used for both network packet capture and network traffic analysis?

74 / 164

Which of the following is NOT a useful source of information for forensic investigation in Linux systems?

75 / 164

What is a parallel test in regards to disaster recovery?

76 / 164

Which of the following is an advantage of packet analysis (pcap) in the investigation process of incidents based on the text provided?

77 / 164

What is the recommended approach for managing privileged accounts during the provisioning phase?

78 / 164

Which of the following is true about investigations and digital forensics?

79 / 164

What is a key element of an incident response plan?

80 / 164

Which of the following vulnerability management activities has the significant defect of only being able to detect known vulnerabilities for which a signature has been created?

81 / 164

What is the purpose of a stateful firewall?

82 / 164

What is the primary benefit of a RAID 0 configuration?

83 / 164

What is a critical role security practitioners can play in Business Continuity (BC) planning and exercise?

84 / 164

Which of the following statements about security controls is true?

85 / 164

What is the primary purpose of access controls in operational facilities?

86 / 164

What type of changes are preapproved to reduce operational overhead and considered low risk?

87 / 164

What is the purpose of normalization in SIEM?

88 / 164

Why is the one voice principle essential in crisis communications?

89 / 164

What is the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

90 / 164

What makes forensic investigations difficult on mobile devices?

91 / 164

Which of the following is true about reporting during the IR process?

92 / 164

Which of the following is a proactive activity in threat management that allows identifying threats and threat actors targeting organizations?

93 / 164

What is the difference between need-to-know and least privilege?

94 / 164

What is the definition of Maximum tolerable or allowable downtime (MTD or MAD)?

95 / 164

What is the preferred method of copying digital evidence during incident response?

96 / 164

Which service of SIEM tools allows for the detection of potentially suspicious events?

97 / 164

What is an important consideration when monitoring public areas for security purposes?

98 / 164

What is the primary benefit of job rotation for an organization from a CISSP perspective?

99 / 164

Which type of firewall operates by inspecting network packets and comparing them against a ruleset?

100 / 164

What is the best way to prevent unwanted changes to digital evidence?

101 / 164

What is data durability in the context of cloud computing backup strategies?

102 / 164

What are indicators of compromise (IoCs) in the context of threat hunting?

103 / 164

Which of the following sources can provide information about traffic flow and volume, as well as details about communication ports, protocols, and addresses on a network device?

104 / 164

Which source of network artifacts can provide a picture of the Internet Protocol (IP) traffic flow and volume across a network device?

105 / 164

How can AI and ML benefit security tools according to the text?

106 / 164

What is the main difference between network-based and host-based systems for intrusion detection and prevention?

107 / 164

What is the purpose of a disaster assessment?

108 / 164

What are operational threat hunting activities focused on?

109 / 164

What is a common method used by signature-based anti-malware tools to detect malware?

110 / 164

What is the principle that requires that information or evidence must be of undisputed origin, which is proven by the chain of custody?

111 / 164

Which of the following is NOT a main investigative technique a security practitioner should be familiar with?

112 / 164

What are DISA STIGs?

113 / 164

Which of the following is an example of a foundational concept in SecOps?

114 / 164

What is the purpose of separating duties or responsibilities?

115 / 164

What is the main benefit of UEBA in security operations?

116 / 164

Which of the following is a benefit of implementing multiple processing sites?

117 / 164

After a disaster has been resolved, what is the purpose of conducting a postmortem or after-action report?

118 / 164

What should be considered with regards to building materials in an operational facility?

119 / 164

What is cryptoshredding or cryptographic erasure in relation to FDE?

120 / 164

What is an example of a software-enforced sandbox?

121 / 164

What is the primary benefit of RAID 5?

122 / 164

Which security control is required for both human safety and equipment protection in operational facilities?

123 / 164

What is data capture as a data investigative technique?

124 / 164

Which of the following principles of evidence is most important when presenting it to a court?

125 / 164

Which of the following is a targeted form of testing for vulnerabilities, usually against a particular asset, where human testers try to evade the organizations defenses using automated tools, and the success of the red team is defined by the acquisition of the target by exploiting vulnerabilities discovered?

126 / 164

Which of the following provides free security benchmark documents covering a wide variety of devices including cloud and server operating systems, and is usually less restrictive than DISA STIGs?

127 / 164

What is the difference between vulnerability scanning and red teaming?

128 / 164

What does the chain of custody for digital evidence prove?

129 / 164

Which of the following is true about defining auditable events and thresholds?

130 / 164

What is the primary purpose of conducting tests and exercises of the Incident Response (IR) plan?

131 / 164

What is the purpose of breach reporting under most privacy legislation?

132 / 164

What are DISA STIGs?

133 / 164

What is the preferred method for collecting digital evidence to ensure complete evidence?

134 / 164

Which RAID configuration provides (the best, out of all the selections) both fault tolerance and increased read/write performance?

135 / 164

Which of the following BCDR testing is the least expensive in terms of time and cost?

136 / 164

What is a useful source of information for Windows forensic investigation?

137 / 164

Which recovery site option ensures the quickest RTO and RPO, but is also the most costly?

138 / 164

Which of the following is not a key metric used to measure recovery capability?

139 / 164

Which type of firewall is installed on a specific endpoint and uses a ruleset specific to that endpoint?

140 / 164

What is a freely available resource that covers specific methods and tools to securely destroy media and data?

141 / 164

Which of the following is a software toolkit that provides common tools for forensic investigation?

142 / 164

What is the main goal of digital forensics in relation to artifacts?

143 / 164

What is a full interruption test in the context of DR capability testing?

144 / 164

What do data recovery tools assist investigators with in a forensic investigation?

145 / 164

What is the main difference between an interview and an interrogation?

146 / 164

What should an IR plan contain in relation to third-party considerations for proper coordination with external service providers during an incident response?

147 / 164

What is a best practice for ensuring the integrity of data backed up to media like hard disks or tape drives?

148 / 164

Which of the following is NOT an additional control required during the access management lifecycle of privileged accounts?

149 / 164

What is the purpose of Just-in-time privileged access management for elevated access credentials?

150 / 164

Which RAID configuration provides fault through mirroring?

151 / 164

Which of the following is an example of a physical access control?

152 / 164

What is the primary goal of incident management?

153 / 164

What type of firewall offers the ability for the firewall to understand context regarding communication?

154 / 164

What is one key consideration in protecting media?

155 / 164

Which of the following RAID configurations provide fault tolerance and increased read/write performance?

156 / 164

What is one of the key advantages of using a SIEM tool?

157 / 164

Which of the following is a tool designed to solicit information from individuals, typically witnesses or those with knowledge of an incident?

158 / 164

What is a critical consideration for building materials in operational facilities?

159 / 164

What is a recommended method for ensuring the integrity of log files that need to be relied upon in forensics?

160 / 164

Which technique involves gathering information from third parties like an ISP or a government agency in an investigation?

161 / 164

Which of the following is NOT a principle of evidence that should be adhered to?

162 / 164

What is the purpose of a patch?

163 / 164

Which of the following is a proactive logging and monitoring activity?

164 / 164

What is the purpose of triage in incident response and how does it relate to SOAR?

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DOMAIN 7: Security Operations – A Comprehensive Overview for the CISSP Practice Exam

Preparing for the CISSP Practice Exam

  • Importance: Mastering Domain 7: Security Operations is crucial for your cybersecurity career.
  • Focus: This domain covers day-to-day management and protection of information systems.

Key Aspects of Domain 7

  1. Resource Protection Techniques

    • Protect physical and digital assets.
    • Use access control mechanisms and secure management practices.
  2. Incident Management and Response

    • Prepare for and manage security incidents.
    • Understand incident handling processes and develop response strategies.
  3. Forensic Analysis

    • Learn principles and practices of forensic analysis.
    • Gather and analyze evidence following security incidents.

Optimizing Your CISSP Exam Preparation

  • Engage with Learning Materials: Use practice tests and resources.
  • Understand Practical Applications: Apply what you learn to real-world scenarios.

Continuous Learning

For more information, refer to the official ISC2.

Start Your Journey to CISSP Success Today!

 

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