CompTIA A+ 220-1101 2.0 Networking

Ref:📕Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 1 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1101)

1 / 112

What functions does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) perform?

A. It operates on TCP and responds to a client’s request for IP configuration data.

B. It operates on UDP and provides data to the client from a range of fixed values.

C. It manages the ’lease’ period for the data supplied to the client and its renewal or expiration.

D. All of the above

2 / 112

What is a significant disadvantage of using an Ethernet hub instead of a switch in a 100Base-T (Fast Ethernet) network?

A. It reduces the signal quality from each port.

B. It subdivides the total bandwidth of the network by the number of connected devices.

C. It disrupts the network traffic due to frequent signal loss.

D. It does not support 100-Mbps speed.

3 / 112

What is the purpose of a proxy server?

A. To act as an intermediary between users and the resources they request

B. To act as a virus protection for the users

C. To increase the burden on the multipurpose server

D. To directly access the Internet without user’s permission

4 / 112

What is the role of TLS in HTTPS?

A. It supplies the connection-oriented assurance of the communication

B. It encrypts the standard HTTP packet

C. It defines the characteristics of the transmission such as bandwidth and speed

D. It exchanges messages between the requester and the server

5 / 112

What is the primary function of Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) systems in an industrial setting?

A. To control the functions of the machinery and access specific data for efficiency and improvement

B. To physically control the machinery in the industry

C. To reduce the cost of manufacturing machinery

D. To design new machinery for the industry

6 / 112

What does the term ’line-of-sight’ in relation to a Wireless Internet Service Provider (WISP) refers to?

A. A type of ISP that requires a physical cable connection

B. The sequence of data transfer in WISP

C. The type of WISP service that uses high-powered antennas to connect to fixed locations

D. The view of the user when connected to WISP

7 / 112

Which command is used to check the Bluetooth status on a Linux system?

A. bluetoothctl status Bluetooth

B. sudo systemctl status Bluetooth

C. bluetoothctl discoverable on

D. bluetoothctl scan on

8 / 112

Which of the following accurately describes the process of DHCP client/server configuration acquisition?

A. The client first sends a network addressing identification request, the server responds with an IP address or NAK, the client selectively responds to offers from multiple servers, and acknowledging server replies with DHCP ACK

B. The server first sends an IP address from its pool, then the client responds by identifying itself, then the server acknowledges via DHCP ACK

C. The server sends a DHCP offer to clients, clients choose an IP address, the server then identifies the client’s network addressing

D. The client first identifies itself to the DHCP server, then the server sends a NAK or IP address, and lastly the client acknowledges the server’s offer

9 / 112

What is the purpose of the DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) DNS record?

A. To verify the IP address of the receiving mail server.

B. To authenticate and confirm that an email hasn’t been altered in transit.

C. To manage the delegation of DNS servers.

D. To encrypt the message for security purposes.

10 / 112

What does a DHCP server provide to connected devices?

A. Wi-Fi signals

B. IP addresses, default gateways, and other network settings

C. Firewall protection

D. Encryption services

11 / 112

What can you use a Wi-Fi Analyzer app for?

A. To change your router password

B. To find out which Wi-Fi channels are currently in use and their signal strength

C. To increase the speed of your internet connection

D. To manage your data usage

12 / 112

What is the role of an Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) server program?

A. It ensures that all users have equal access to all resources in a network.

B. It only verifies the user name and password to authenticate a user.

C. It determines the user’s identity, controls their access to resources, and tracks their actions.

D. It strictly maintains the accounting and audit functions of a network system.

13 / 112

According to the CompTIA A+ (220-1101) ’Wireless Networking Standards’ section, what two primary measurements are used to differentiate Wi-Fi standards?

A. Security and encryption

B. Range and bandwidth

C. Speed and frequency

D. Compatibility and wavelength

14 / 112

What is a cable tester used for?

A. To determine the speed of the internet

B. To verify if Wi-Fi signals are working

C. To verify if individual wires in twisted pair (TP) cable are properly located and connected

D. To measure the length of the cable

15 / 112

What is the role of a router in a LAN and WAN network setup?

A. A router forwards signals from the LAN to the WAN

B. A router replaces the LAN and WAN

C. A router only receives signals, it does not send them

D. A router blocks signals from reaching the WAN

16 / 112

What kind of a communication protocol is UDP?

A. Connection-oriented protocol

B. Connection-managed protocol

C. Connectionless protocol

D. Connection-dependent protocol

17 / 112

What are the different signals exchanged in a handshake during connection-oriented communication?

A. Ping, Pong, Echo reply

B. HUB, Switch, Router

C. SYN, RTS, CTS, ACKs

D. RIP, OSPF, IGRP, EIGRP

18 / 112

What is the comparable command to ’ipconfig /all’ in Linux and macOS to see the current IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers?

A. ifconfig/all

B. linuxconfig/all

C. ifconfig

D. macoconfig/all

19 / 112

Which of the following statements regarding cable Internet service is false?

A. The coaxial cable used for cable TV service can also transmit Internet service.

B. Cable TV service typically only uses a 6-MHz channel, leaving room for other services.

C. Cable Internet services usually offer the same upload and download speeds.

D. Cable Internet connections are theoretically available anywhere you can get cable TV.

20 / 112

To enable Bluetooth on an Apple macOS device, which of the following steps is necessary?

A. Click on the Wi-Fi icon on the Control Center

B. Click on the Bluetooth icon on either the Control Center or the menu bar

C. Enter a passcode to access the Control Center

D. Open the Apple menu and click iCloud

21 / 112

What is the main function of an Optical Network Terminal (ONT) in a fiber optic service?

A. It monitors the speed of service

B. It converts light signaling into electrical impulses and vice versa

C. It acts as a demarcation point where ownership of the device changes hands

D. It is a termination unit installed by the service provider

22 / 112

What must be done before two Bluetooth devices can establish interaction between them?

A. Pair the devices without enabling Bluetooth

B. Enable Bluetooth on one device

C. Enable Bluetooth on both devices and then pair them

D. Connect the devices via a cable and then enable Bluetooth

23 / 112

What is the main characteristic of Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?

A. It requires a strong authentication

B. It provides a structured flow control

C. It operates without authentication and a structured flow control

D. It only works for large files

24 / 112

Which of the following best describes a Personal Area Network (PAN)?

A. A long-range network typically using Wi-Fi.

B. A short-range network typically using Bluetooth.

C. A network used to interchange data between servers.

D. A network that uses the Internet for communication between devices.

25 / 112

What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)?

A. A group of computers on multiple LANs connected with long-distance technologies

B. A local system of interconnected devices within a certain geographical range

C. Just another term for the Internet

D. A singular computer connected to the internet

26 / 112

What factors could potentially affect the speed of a DSL connection?

A. The distance from the DSL modem to the telephone company’s central switch

B. The brand of the DSL modem

C. The size and aesthetic of the DSL modem

D. The color of the telephone line connected to DSL modem

27 / 112

How does the DHCPv6 process differ from the DHCPv4 process?

A. DHCPv6 uses broadcasting while DHCPv4 uses multicasting

B. DHCPv6 provides a default gateway while DHCPv4 does not

C. DHCPv4 uses broadcasting while DHCPv6 uses multicasting

D. DHCPv6 and DHCPv4 use the same process

28 / 112

Which of the following best describes Internet of Things (IoT) devices?

A. Devices that can only send data over a network

B. Devices that can only receive data over a network

C. Devices incapable of being connected to a WAN or the Internet

D. Devices capable of both sending and receiving data over a network

29 / 112

What is the primary role of a DNS Server?

A. It maintains a database of email servers.

B. It maintains a database of IP addresses and matches them with host names.

C. It provides a database of all domain names and their owners.

D. It is responsible for assigning IP addresses to each device.

30 / 112

What is the main difference between TCP and UDP protocols?

A. TCP is a connectionless protocol while UDP is a connection-oriented protocol

B. TCP is faster than UDP because it lacks checks

C. UDP transfers data more reliably than TCP

D. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol while UDP is a connectionless protocol

31 / 112

What does a PoE switch do differently compared to supplying standard Ethernet devices?

A. It detects whether connected devices are wireless or wired

B. It supplies power to standard Ethernet devices

C. It supplies power to PoE devices

D. It creates a backup of connected devices

32 / 112

What is the main purpose of Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)?

A. Encrypting data communication between sender and receiver

B. Assigning Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to devices on a network

C. Blocking malicious software from entering the network

D. Controlling access to a device or network

33 / 112

Which frequency band does the Local Multichannel Distribution Service (LMDS) operate on in the U.S.?

A. 48-GHz

B. 24-GHz

C. 28-GHz

D. 36-GHz

34 / 112

What are the two services focused on by the A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Exam in SOHO Internet connections?

A. Cable and DSL

B. DSL and Satellite

C. Cable and Wireless

D. Wireless and satellite

35 / 112

What is the purpose of DHCP leases on a network?

A. To permanently assign IP addresses to nodes

B. To pool and assign IP addresses for a specific duration to accommodate more networked workstations

C. To prevent clients from renewing their leases

D. To maintain the same IP configuration even after a node is powered off

36 / 112

What is the maximum power a port can get according to IEEE 802.3at (PoE+) standard?

A. 15.4 watts

B. 30 watts

C. 60 watts

D. 100 watts

37 / 112

What is the main function of a connection-oriented protocol?

A. It focuses on establishing a constant connection over the network

B. It ensures encryption of data transmission over the network

C. It determines the physical route to be followed in the network

D. It manages and operates the connections and data transmission over the established circuit

38 / 112

What is a DHCP reservation used for?

A. To dynamically change the IP address of a device

B. To keep the IP address of a device constant

C. To disconnect a device from the network

D. To allow multiple devices to share the same IP address

39 / 112

What does a print server manage in a network?

A. Computer terminals

B. Network traffic

C. Network print queues

D. Database management

40 / 112

What is a primary benefit of using a VLAN?

A. To increase the size of each broadcast domain

B. To eliminate the need for managed network switches

C. To increase the number of collision and broadcast domains while reducing their size

D. To combine multiple Ethernet LANs into a single VLAN

41 / 112

What must you provide when configuring a device with a static IP address according to the given text?

A. The DNS server’s IP address

B. The IP address of the device itself

C. The default gateway’s IP address

D. The IP address of the other device in the network

42 / 112

In a WLAN, which of the following parameters measures the residual signal strength after distance and obstacle attenuations?

A. Radio transmit power

B. Equivalent isotopically radiated power (EIRP)

C. Received signal strength indicator (RSSI)

D. Antenna gain

43 / 112

What is the purpose of a Punchdown tool in a typical horizontal cabling run?

A. To connect the cable to a female connector

B. To connect the cable to a 110 block

C. To force the wire to a unlined groove

D. To protect the cladding from getting sliced

44 / 112

Which connection-oriented protocols are most likely to be covered in the A+ Core 1 exam?

A. HTTPS, SMTP, FTP

B. TCP, HTTPS, SMTP

C. TCP, HTTPS, SSH

D. HTTPS, SSH, FTP

45 / 112

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from a comparison between private and public IPv4 addresses?

A. Public addresses can be duplicated anywhere on the Internet.

B. Private addresses are blocked from being forwarded outside of an organization’s edge routers.

C. Private addresses are set aside from those that are running out.

D. Public addresses can be used repeatedly for local area networks (LANs).

46 / 112

What are the primary elements of a DHCP implementation?

A. DHCP server, DHCP client, IP address pool, IP address lease

B. DHCP client, VPN server, IP address lease, Router

C. DHCP server, DNS server, IP address pool, Firewall

D. DHCP server, Switch, IP address lease, IP address pool

47 / 112

What is the main function of a toner probe in network troubleshooting?

A. To physically reposition wires in a network.

B. To send an electric signal through a wire that emits sound to help locate it.

C. To measure the electrical resistance of the wire.

D. To generate labels for network cables.

48 / 112

What is the primary purpose of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

A. It guides the transfer of data across the network.

B. It converts binary addressing and its decimal equivalent into a URL or FQDN.

C. It generates binary IPv4 addresses for sites.

D. It helps remember binary IPv4 addresses.

49 / 112

Which of the following is true about Syslog?

A. Syslog is a protocol specific to Windows.

B. Syslog is used by network devices to send event messages to a server.

C. Syslog cannot send alerts.

D. Syslog can only handle messages from MacOS applications.

50 / 112

What is primarily assigned with a static IP address?

A. Only the DNS servers.

B. The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.

C. Only the IP address and subnet mask.

D. The IP address and subnet mask, excluding the default gateway and DNS servers.

51 / 112

What are the three main components of an RFID system?

A. A reader, a transmitter, and an antenna

B. An RFID tag or label, a receiver, and a host computer system

C. An RFID tag or label, a reader, and an antenna

D. An RFID tag or label, an antenna, and a host computer system

52 / 112

What is the main purpose of incorporating Internet appliances into networks?

A. To boost the network’s speed

B. To provide different types of network security

C. To increase the network’s storage capacity

D. To improve the network’s aesthetic appeal

53 / 112

What is the function of a loopback plug in the context of checking the functionality of a network interface card (NIC)?

A. It monitors the data sent and received by the NIC

B. It connects the transmit lines to the receive lines

C. It increases the data transmission speed

D. It protects the NIC’s female connector from damage

54 / 112

What is the first step in the DHCP process for a node to obtain an IP configuration?

A. The node broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message to the network.

B. The node broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to the network.

C. The network DHCP server scans for DHCPOFFER messages.

D. The network DHCP server sends a DHCPACK message to the node.

55 / 112

What frequency bands does the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (UNII) include?

A. UNII-1 (lower bands), UNII-2 (middle bands), UNII-3 (upper bands)

B. UNII-A, UNII-B, UNII-C

C. UNII-1, UNII-5, UNII-8

D. UNII-2, UNII-4, UNII-6

56 / 112

Which of the following options are examples of software designed for serving websites?

A. Microsoft Word

B. MySQL

C. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)

D. Adobe Photoshop

57 / 112

Which of the following is not one of the types of a DHCP scope?

A. Normal

B. Superscope

C. Multicast

D. Unicast

58 / 112

What is the function of the MX records in a DNS server?

A. They control the flow of email traffic in and out of a network.

B. They identify the mail servers that can receive messages for a domain name.

C. They keep track of the websites visited by users in a network.

D. They block unauthorized access to the domain name.

59 / 112

Which type of address is needed for communication beyond a local network and onto a WAN or the Internet?

A. MAC Address

B. Logical Address

C. Physical Address

D. Local Address

60 / 112

What is the typical range of the upload speeds for a satellite connection?

A. From a few to about 100 Mbps

B. From a few to about 50 Mbps

C. Typically a tenth to a third of the download speed

D. From a few to about 10 Mbps

61 / 112

What is an original form that a Network Interface Card (NIC) came in?

A. USB adapter

B. PCIe card

C. Integrated adapter

D. Add-on card

62 / 112

Which of the following statements is true about the Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) bands?

A. They were originally designated for use by machinery that emits RF signals as a by-product of its use

B. They are restricted and require approval for use

C. They are not used for Wi-Fi connections

D. They only support the 802.11b standard

63 / 112

What protocol does the Secure Shell (SSH) replace and why?

A. Telnet because it lacks security and doesn’t provide authenticate policies or encryption

B. Secure FTP because it’s slower

C. HTTP because it’s not secure

D. RDP because it doesn’t have authentication mechanisms

64 / 112

What does a node’s operating system do when it is unable to obtain its configuration data from a DHCP server?

A. It blocks the node from communicating on the local network

B. It assigns a public IP address

C. It assigns a placeholder link-local address

D. It generates a new MAC address

65 / 112

What is the main difference between Fiber-to-the-node/ Fiber-to-the-neighborhood (FTTN) and Fiber-to-the-premises (FTTP) services?

A. FTTN service types are only available in cities while FTTP services are available everywhere.

B. FTTN service types offer higher speeds and subscription costs than FTTP services.

C. An FTTP connection links the provider’s CO directly to a home or office with fiber cabling, while an FTTN connection runs from a provider’s central office to a distribution box in a neighborhood.

D. an FTTN connection uses fiber cabling the whole way, while an FTTP connection uses a mix of coaxial and Ethernet cable.

66 / 112

How is dynamic address configuration performed on a Windows, Linux, or macOS computer?

A. Using the HTTP protocol

B. Through a manual IP input

C. By the TCP/IP protocol DHCP

D. Through the FTP protocol

67 / 112

What is the primary purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A. To provide a platform for video conferencing

B. To connect computers or networks into a private network as if they were on a directly connected LAN

C. To set up a new operating system

D. To protect a computer against viruses

68 / 112

What type of Ethernet does a cable modem may connect to?

A. WAN Ethernet

B. LAN Ethernet

C. Metro Ethernet

D. All of the above

69 / 112

Which network types are expected for you to know in the COMPTIA A+ 220-1101 exam?

A. MANs and CANs

B. LANs and WANs

C. PANs and VPNs

D. TANs and SANs

70 / 112

How do you enable Bluetooth on a Windows 10 or 11 device?

A. Open the Devices page from the Start menu and move the slide switch to On.

B. Open the Control Panel, go to the Devices page, and turn Bluetooth on.

C. Right-click on the Start menu, select Devices, and move the Bluetooth switch to On.

D. Open the Settings app from the Start menu, choose Devices, and move the slide switch on the Bluetooth & Other Devices page to On.

71 / 112

Which one of the options below is NOT a layer in the Software-defined networking (SDN)?

A. Application Layer

B. Control Layer

C. Infrastructure Layer

D. Traffic Layer

72 / 112

What is required to connect a LAN to the Internet based on the attached text?

A. A modem and router

B. The right type of cables

C. The appropriate hardware and associated software

D. An Internet Service Provider

73 / 112

Which of the following best describes the function of a hardware firewall?

A. It runs on individual systems to protect a single host computer

B. It is used to hide IP addresses and block TCP/IP ports from the Internet

C. It filters packets before they reach your internal network and its resources and devices

D. It primarily provides advanced features found on large enterprise systems

74 / 112

Which of the following statements about Bluetooth is NOT correct?

A. Bluetooth devices communicate directly with each other.

B. A wireless LAN needs an intermediary device, such as a router or an access point, unlike Bluetooth devices.

C. Bluetooth Low Energy (LE) operates at a higher data transfer rate than Basic Rate/Enhanced Data Rate (BR/EDR).

D. Bluetooth devices can be part of a personal area network (PAN).

75 / 112

What is the term CompTIA uses to refer to narrow-purpose computers or servers embedded in machines and other equipment?

A. Hidden computers

B. Compartmentalized machines

C. Peripheral interfaces

D. Legacy/Embedded systems

76 / 112

What is the primary function of a PoE injector in relation to an Ethernet cable?

A. It provides internet connectivity to the Ethernet cable

B. It adds power to the Ethernet cable

C. It boosts the signal strength of the Ethernet cable

D. It serves as a wireless adapter for the Ethernet cable

77 / 112

What is the IPv4 address representation system that is more human-friendly?

A. Decimal-octet notation

B. Binary-octet notation

C. Dotted-decimal notation

D. Dotted-binary notation

78 / 112

What distinguishes Near-field communication (NFC) from technologies like Bluetooth, RFID, or Zigbee according to the text?

A. It operates within a range of 4 centimeters.

B. Its signal generation is produced from electromagnetic induction.

C. It has three modes of operation.

D. It is used with tap-to-go payment systems.

79 / 112

Which of the following are examples of connectionless protocols?

A. SMTP and POP

B. FTP and HTTPS

C. TCP and IGMP

D. DHCP and TFTP

80 / 112

What is a major limitation on cellular Internet services?

A. Limited access to 3G, 4G, and 5G

B. The lack of tablet connectivity

C. The data plan is subject to caps on data transfer

D. The inability to connect more than one device at a time

81 / 112

What is the role of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) in radio frequency (RF) band management?

A. To assign satellite orbits and develop worldwide technical standards

B. To solely provide interference-free transmission across the RF bands

C. To handle the maintenance of the satellites

D. To build and launch the satellites

82 / 112

What is true about the use of channels in the 802.11-based wireless network standard in the U.S.?

A. All 14 ISM channels can be used.

B. Only 1, 6, and 11 of the ISM channels are available for use on a wireless local area network (WLAN).

C. All the 24 non-overlapping UNII channels are available on each of the UNII band levels.

D. Each of the 11 U.S. channels is 2.5 MHz in width.

83 / 112

What is the function of a DMARC record?

A. To facilitate communication between two devices

B. To define what should happen to a message if the sender cannot be authenticated

C. To speed up data processing capabilities in a server

D. To monitor bandwidth usage on a network

84 / 112

What does the Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) service provide for a computer running IPv6 when it boots or restarts?

A. It provides the computer with a specific IP address.

B. It provides most of the link-local configurations.

C. It encrypts the data traffic for the computer.

D. It verifies the IP address of the computer.

85 / 112

What is the key feature of IEEE 802.11ah standard?

A. Operates on a licensed 1-GHz band

B. Has a shorter transmission range than other WLAN standards

C. Used for short-range hotspots and cellular traffic offloading

D. It operates on an unlicensed 1-Ghz band with a longer transmission range

86 / 112

What is the difference between an A record and an AAAA record in DNS?

A. An A record holds IPv4 addresses while an AAAA record holds IPv6 addresses.

B. An A record holds IPv6 addresses while an AAAA record holds IPv4 addresses.

C. An A record is used for mail exchange while an AAAA record associates an IP address to a domain name.

D. An A record is used for comments while an AAAA record holds IPv4 addresses.

87 / 112

Who in the U.S. controls who can broadcast on the available RF spectrums?

A. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

B. The National Security Agency (NSA)

C. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

D. The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)

88 / 112

What is the primary limiting factor for DSL?

A. The type of switching device at the CO

B. The flavor of DSL

C. Distance from the subscriber’s premises to the provider’s CO

D. The type of telephone system used

89 / 112

What is the likely loopback address on any single PC?

A. 127.0.0.0

B. 127.255.255.255

C. 127.127.127.127

D. 127.0.0.1

90 / 112

What protocols are typically used by mail servers?

A. FTP and HTTP

B. DHCP and DNS

C. POP3/IMAP4 and SMTP

D. TCP and UDP

91 / 112

What is the purpose of a patch panel as shown in Figure 2.2-4?

A. To connect the patch panel to the switch using short stranded-core UTP patch cables

B. To organize the color coding of your workspace

C. To establish a dedicated internet connection

D. To amplify the network signal

92 / 112

What functions does a Unified Threat Management (UTM) system typically provide?

A. Web traffic filtering, email hosting, and load balancing

B. Firewall, remote access, VPN support, web traffic filtering, anti-malware, and network intrusion prevention

C. Database management, firewall, and anti-malware

D. Server hosting, network routing, and remote access

93 / 112

What does Power over Ethernet (PoE) injectors or PoE switches provide to advanced APs and networked devices?

A. Carry only data through a standard Ethernet cable

B. Carry only power through a standard Ethernet cable

C. Carry both power and data simultaneously over a Wi-Fi connection

D. Carry both power and data simultaneously through a standard Ethernet cable

94 / 112

What is the main purpose of a Storage Area Network (SAN)?

A. It operates as the main network for a business

B. It provides a single addressable network node for one or more storage devices

C. It serves as the primary internet access for an organization

D. It exclusively manages software updates

95 / 112

What is the purpose of DNS in the process of accessing a URL?

A. To provide the requested content

B. To enter a URL into a browser

C. To respond with the IP address associated with the URL

D. To send out an HTTPS request with the IP address

96 / 112

What is a characteristic of a Managed switch?

A. Each port cannot be configured with different settings

B. It can only function as one Virtual LAN

C. It has no Quality of Service (QoS) control

D. It can function as two or more virtual LANs

97 / 112

What is a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)?

A. A network smaller than both LAN and WAN

B. A campus-wide or city-wide network that uses fibre optic or fixed-base wireless networks

C. The largest type of network

D. A small network typically used for individual home usage

98 / 112

What is the main purpose of a load balancer in a network?

A. To manage network security

B. To spread out the processing of incoming request traffic evenly across servers

C. To increase the speed of internet connection

D. To back up server data

99 / 112

What is the structure of IPv6 addresses based on the text?

A. It has 124 bits in its addressing scheme and involves eight decimal number groups separated by dots.

B. It has 128 bits in its addressing scheme and includes eight hexadecimal number groups separated by colons.

C. It has 128 bits in its addressing scheme and has eight binary number groups separated by colons.

D. It has 132 bits in its addressing scheme and has eight octal number groups separated by semicolons.

100 / 112

What is the primary function of an Access Point (AP)?

A. It allows for high-speed internet connection.

B. It is a high-speed switch.

C. It acts as a central connection for wireless network nodes into a WLAN.

D. It acts as an Internet router.

101 / 112

Which of the following statements best describes an unmanaged switch?

A. It is exclusively used in large corporate networks.

B. It has management features and can separate devices into different LANs.

C. It is typically used in small office/home office (SOHO) environments and all devices connected to it are in the same LAN.

D. It allows for the creation of virtual LANs.

102 / 112

What is a Local Area Network (LAN)?

A. A group of networked computers within a few thousand kilometers of each other.

B. A group of networked computers that primarily use a Bluetooth connection.

C. A group of networked computers within a few hundred meters of each other.

D. A single computer connected to the Internet.

103 / 112

What function does a switch perform in a local area network (LAN)?

A. It cuts power to the LAN when not in use

B. It remembers the MAC address of each device and repeats signals to the appropriate host

C. It broadcasts a radio signal for wireless devices

D. It assigns IP addresses to each device on the network

104 / 112

What is the function of a file server?

A. It processes all data in a network

B. It stores files used by other computers and devices on a network

C. It provides internet access to a network

D. It serves as a security system for a network

105 / 112

What is the purpose of anti-spam appliances or spam gateways?

A. To speed up internet connections

B. To filter out incoming spam e-mail messages and instant messaging

C. To improve the display quality of a system

D. To store and manage data

106 / 112

What is the function of a network TAP (test access point)?

A. To split the Internet connection for multiple devices

B. To monitor and copy all network traffic without impeding its flow

C. To connect to a VoIP recorder only

D. To restrict access to certain data flow

107 / 112

What is the main function of a Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record?

A. It prevents users from opening email attachments.

B. It authenticates the origin of emails to prevent spoofing.

C. It routes incoming emails to the appropriate server.

D. It encrypts email content for enhanced security.

108 / 112

What is a server in the context of networks?

A. A device that connects to the internet

B. A computer device that provides services to connected devices

C. The main device in a network

D. A computing device that connects to other servers

109 / 112

What could potentially make a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) less secure compared to a LAN?

A. The range of WLAN is shorter than that of LAN

B. The signal transmission of WLAN can be intercepted

C. The RF wireless medium presenting more attenuation

D. The strength of WLAN being lesser than LAN

110 / 112

Why might Fixed Wireless Access (FWA) be preferred over satellite, DSL, or traditional cable connections in some situations?

A. FWA is cheaper than all the other options

B. FWA has better bandwidth and higher speeds than all the other options

C. FWA doesn’t require long pulls of fiber optic and copper cables for last-mile connections

D. FWA uses 5G technology

111 / 112

What factor does the type of hardware device used to connect to an Internet service depend on?

A. The location of the user

B. The ISP and the type of service it provides

C. The operating system of the user

D. The size of the user’s data plan

112 / 112

What purpose do TCP and UDP port numbers serve in the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) suite?

A. They identify the type of connection being used

B. They identify the type of data being transmitted

C. They identify the type of cable being used for data transmission

D. They identify the specific Internet service provider

Your score is

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