CompTIA A+ 220-1102 4.0 Operational Procedures

Ref:📕Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 4.0 Operational Procedures

1 / 161

What is the threshold of electrostatic discharge (ESD) voltage that can damage a computer component or circuit?

A. Less than 1000 volts

B. At least 2000 volts

C. Only 10 volts

D. Minimum 500 volts

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The electrostatic discharge (ESD) can harm computer components or circuits with only 10 volts.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 559 in PDF)

2 / 161

What are the commands used in a Windows script for drive mapping?

A. chkdsk and sfc /scannow

B. net use and New-PSDrive PowerShell command

C. map and rm

D. Get-DriveID and Set-DriveID

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In a Windows script, drive mappings or re-mappings are done using the ’net use’ command or ’New-PSDrive’ PowerShell command, depending on the specific needs of the system’s operation at the time.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 611 in PDF)

3 / 161

What is the .vbs extension used for and which interpreter executes it by default?

A. It is used for Visual Basic Script and is executed by the cmd.exe interpreter

B. It is used for Batch files and executed by PowerShell interpreter

C. It is used for Visual Basic Script and is executed by the wscript.exe interpreter

D. It is used for PowerShell scripts and executed by wscript.exe interpreter

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The .vbs extension is used for scripts written in the Visual Basic Scripting language, which is a Microsoft scripting language based off Visual Basic. By default, VBScripts are executed by the wscript.exe interpreter.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 604 in PDF)

4 / 161

What can potentially happen when a new program or script is installed in a system?

A. The program or script can detect malware

B. The program or script can provide a vulnerability that an attacker might exploit

C. The program or script can automatically delete malware

D. The program or script can limit the attack surface

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Installing a new program or script may bring with it new vulnerabilities that were not initially present in the system. These vulnerabilities might be exploitations for an attacker to install malware or launch privilege escalation attacks, as stated in the source text.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 615 in PDF)

5 / 161

Which of the following is NOT a common category type for tracking, reporting, and analysis in incident management?

A. Provisioning

B. Incident

C. Problem

D. Appreciation

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Provisioning, Incident, and Problem are all mentioned as common category types used in incident management for tracking, reporting, and analysis. Appreciation is not mentioned as a category type.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 518 in PDF)

6 / 161

What does the Affected Systems Impact statement provide information about?

A. The source of the change request

B. The elements indirectly affected by the primary change

C. The width of the requested change

D. The basis for a revised scope statement

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Affected Systems Impact statement details the elements, directly or indirectly affected by the change in the primary area.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 537 in PDF)

7 / 161

What is the purpose of wearing an air filtration mask when servicing, storing or disposing of equipment according to CompTIA A+ guidelines?

A. To protect from harmful radiation.

B. To protect from dust and debris.

C. To enhance worker communication.

D. To prevent eye injuries.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: An air filtration mask is recommended to protect the wearer from inhaling dust and debris while servicing, storing, or disposing of equipment in the work area. Thus, the correct answer is ’To protect from dust and debris.’

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 564 in PDF)

8 / 161

What is a rollback plan in change management?

A. A plan to allow for a return to pre-change conditions if necessary

B. A plan to ensure all changes meet expectations

C. A plan to backup the system after changes are made

D. A plan to allow for changes to be made without backup

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A rollback plan or backout plan in change management is a best practice that allows for a return to pre-change conditions if the changes do not improve the situation as expected. It includes a set of actions such as backing up the OS, apps, and data before the change, using restore points or other options to capture the system state before and during the changes, creating a checklist for the changes, and determining at what point the changes should be rolled back if they do not meet expectations.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 534 in PDF)

9 / 161

Which command is used to restart a Linux system?

A. Restart-Computer

B. shutdown -r

C. auth_restart

D. force_restart

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’shutdown -r’ command is used to restart a Linux system when necessary.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 611 in PDF)

10 / 161

What type of scripting language is PowerShell and what is its extension?

A. Object-oriented scripting language with .vbs extension

B. Simple scripting language with .bat extension

C. Object-oriented scripting language with .ps1 extension

D. Object-oriented scripting language with .sh extension

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: PowerShell is an object-oriented scripting language built into Windows 10/11. It uses the .ps1 file extension.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 601 in PDF)

11 / 161

What basic practices can you use to reduce the risk of ESD damage?

A. Wear synthetic clothing and touch connectors

B. Wear cotton clothing and ground yourself on the metal chassis of the computer case

C. Wear wool or silk and keep loose components in protective materials

D. Touch connector legs and pins on RAM modules and use antistatic devices

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Wearing clothes made from natural fibers and grounding yourself on the metal chassis of the computer case are both recommended practices to prevent ESD damage.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 560 in PDF)

12 / 161

What is the first step in a defined change control or change management procedure in accordance with the given passage?

A. Redesigning the existing disaster recovery plan

B. Taking a directive from upper management

C. Determining which existing documented processes, procedures, or guidelines may be impacted

D. Rewording an existing Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the given text, the first step in a defined change control or change management procedure after a change request is made, is to find out which existing documented processes, procedures, or guidelines might be affected by the proposed change.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 533 in PDF)

13 / 161

What does asset management in an information system involve?

A. Tracking software usage only

B. Buying new assets only

C. Cataloging, classifying, provisioning, maintaining, and retiring of the assets

D. Only maintaining hardware

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Asset management in an information system involves multiple processes – cataloging, classifying, provisioning, maintaining, and retiring of the assets. It includes not just equipment, but also software and data.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 521 in PDF)

14 / 161

What is the main function of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?

A. To set up a peer-to-peer connection between devices

B. To provide a secured tunnel for transmissions between a host and a remote network

C. To route messages to a specific ISP

D. To trace the IP address of the message source

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A VPN provides a secured tunnel for the transmissions between a host and a remote network. This tunnel is an encrypted WAN connection that routes messages through an intermediary server to maintain their security.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 622 in PDF)

15 / 161

What are some of the typical stipulations found in a software license?

A. Compulsory donation to the software developer

B. Right to reverse-engineer digital rights management (DRM) protections

C. Compliance to the end-user license agreement (EULA) including usage and sharing policies

D. Mandatory commercial use

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Compliance to the end user license agreement (EULA) is typically a significant part of software licensing. This includes adhering to stipulations regarding the use and sharing of the software.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 584 in PDF)

16 / 161

Which Windows 10/11 apps are available for SSH implementations and what is the default TCP port used by SSH?

A. MicrosoftSSH and QuickSSH, Port 20

B. Putty and FileZilla, Port 22

C. OpenSSH client and OpenSSH server, Port 23

D. OpenSSH client and OpenSSH server, Port 22

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: For SSH implementations on Windows 10/11, two apps are available: OpenSSH client and OpenSSH server. The default TCP port used by SSH is 22.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 623 in PDF)

17 / 161

What scripting language uses the .ps1 file extension and what additional features does it offer?

A. MS-DOS scripting language with an Integrated Development and Learning Environment (IDLE)

B. Visual Basic Script with support for HTML applications

C. PowerShell scripting language with an Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) and support for cmdlets, variables, looping, and aliases

D. JavaScript with an Integrated Development Environment (IDE) for web, mobile and smartwatch apps

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: PowerShell, indicated in the text, is the language that uses the .ps1 extension. It supports cmdlets, variables, looping and aliases. Additionally, it can be modified within its own Integrated Scripting Environment.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 601 in PDF)

18 / 161

What are the steps involved in restoring from an incremental backup scheme?

A. Restore the last unreliable full backup and restore selected incremental backups

B. Restore the most recent incremental backup only

C. Restore the last reliable full backup and restore all incremental backups

D. Restore the first full backup and ignore all incremental backups

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Restoring from an incremental backup scheme involves first restoring the last reliable full backup, and then restoring all incremental backups subsequently in order.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 545 in PDF)

19 / 161

Why should you avoid wearing synthetic clothing while working with computer components?

A. Because it can make you feel uncomfortable

B. Because it can generate static electricity which could damage computer components

C. Because it can be harmful to your skin

D. Because it can catch fire easily

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Synthetic materials are often prone to static electricity build-up, which can then be disrupted or discharged when coming into contact with certain other materials – in this case, sensitive electronics. This can cause ESD damage to the electronic components of a computer.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 560 in PDF)

20 / 161

What is the primary purpose of an Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) Strap?

A. To store static electricity for later use

B. To prevent static electricity from accumulating on the body

C. To provide a physical link between the user and the computer

D. To ground the user in the event of a power surge

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: An Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) Strap, also known as an antistatic wrist or ankle strap, is designed to prevent the accumulation of static electricity on the user’s body by keeping the user at the same relative electrical ground level as the computer components they are working on. This helps to avoid the occurrence of ESD, which can damage sensitive electronic components.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 553 in PDF)

21 / 161

What is generally included in a standard operating procedure (SOP)?

A. A birthday card for the employee

B. A statement defining the intent of the policy governing an action

C. The employee’s salary information

D. The company’s marketing strategy

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: An SOP typically includes a statement that defines the purpose or intent of the policy that governs a specific action. It provides a clear understanding of what the action is, why it’s necessary, and how it should be carried out.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 527 in PDF)

22 / 161

Which statement about Virtual Network Computing (VNC) based on the passage is true?

A. VNC transmits only mouse movements between computers

B. VNC is platform-independent and doesn’t require the same OS at each end

C. VNC cannot be used to remotely control another computer

D. The security applied in VNC communication depends on the OS or VNC desktop control or viewer application

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The passage states that ’Any security applied is dependent on the OS or VNC desktop control or viewer app.’ This means the security measures in VNC communication rely on the operating system or the software application used, such as RealVNC Viewer or TightVNC.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 622 in PDF)

23 / 161

What information is meant to be included in the ’Problem Description’ field of a service ticket?

A. The actions taken to resolve the issue

B. A brief, vague summary of the issue

C. The progress and results of the action plan to correct the problem

D. A detailed report of the problem collected from the reporting party

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Problem description’ field should include a full and detailed description of the problem. All available information gathered from the reporting party — typically the end user experiencing the issue — should be documented in this section.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 520 in PDF)

24 / 161

What attitude should you adopt while interacting with customers in problem-solving situations?

A. Be defensive and refute the customer’s remarks emphatically

B. Enter into arguments with the customer

C. Assure the customer of your intent to help, avoiding being defensive or argumentative

D. Act indifferent to the customer’s issue

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text stressed on the importance of being helpful towards the customer and avoiding defensive or argumentative attitudes to assure them that their problem will be solved.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 595 in PDF)

25 / 161

What is the most common reason for using scripting according to the text?

A. To use APIs of the host OS

B. For basic automation

C. To measure and report system conditions

D. To write a compile program

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text clearly mentions that perhaps the most common reason for using scripting is for basic automation. It helps in performing a series of actions automatically rather than doing them one at a time manually.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 610 in PDF)

26 / 161

What is the .sh file extension used for, and what is a requirement in order to run it?

A. Used for simple scripting language developed for MS-DOS and requires no restrictions to run.

B. Used for Bash shell files and requires execute permission to run.

C. Used for JavaScript script and requires an integrated development environment to run.

D. Used for PowerShell scripts and requires .NET-based apps to run.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The .sh file extension is used for Bash shell files, which are executable files originally used on UNIX systems and now used on Linux or macOS systems in Terminal mode. In order to run these files, they require execute permission.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 605 in PDF)

27 / 161

What should a professional tech do if running late for a job?

A. Apologies and cancel the appointment

B. Ignore it and go as planned

C. Contact the customer, apologize and provide an estimated time of arrival

D. Arrive late without explanation

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text provides that if you are running late, you must contact the customer immediately, apologize, and provide an estimated time of arrival. This is considered an essential skill for the professional tech, not only a common courtesy.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 594 in PDF)

28 / 161

What does the grandfather-father-son (GFS) backup rotation scheme base its rotation on?

A. The size of the backup media

B. The type of the backup media

C. The age or sequence of the backup media

D. The location of the backup media

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the GFS backup rotation scheme, the rotation of the backup media is based on its age, from the oldest to the newest. The media labelled as ’grandfather’ is the oldest, ’father’ is the second oldest/newest, and ’son’ is the newest.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 548 in PDF)

29 / 161

What does a new-user setup checklist provide for a new employee?

A. It provides a list of co-workers in the same department

B. It provides a guide on local recreational activities

C. It provides an official process or guideline steps to complete a necessary procedure

D. It provides direction on how to get to the office

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A new-user setup checklist is an SOP that provides official process or guideline steps for a new user to successfully complete a procedure necessary for a new employee to accomplish a required activity.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 527 in PDF)

30 / 161

What sort of information is typically stored in an asset management database system for an information system asset?

A. Asset class, asset type, manufacturer/source, model, acquisition cost

B. Asset class, acquisition cost, serial number, end-of-life date

C. Manufacturer/source, model, serial number, inventory ID number, location or device ID

D. All of the above

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The information stored for an information system asset includes asset class, asset type, manufacturer/source, model, serial number, inventory ID number, location or device ID, acquisition cost, acquisition date, end-of-life (EOL) date, and perhaps service history. So, all the choices given contains elements that would typically be stored in an asset management database system.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 522 in PDF)

31 / 161

What is the purpose of an Incident Response Plan (IRP) in security incident handling?

A. To define the next steps that a technician should take after discovering or reporting an incident

B. To list the prohibited actions, attacks, content, or activity

C. To identify the common causes for a security incident

D. To specify the procedures and processes to use when responding to a security incident

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The purpose of an Incident Response Plan (IRP) is to specify the procedures and processes to use when responding to a security incident. It can lead to the formation of an incident response team (IRT) in larger organizations to handle all security incidents and ensure they are reported to the appropriate authorities.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 578 in PDF)

32 / 161

What is the main function of a ticketing system?

A. To restore a malfunctioned device

B. To record and categorize user service requests

C. To assign end-user devices to categories

D. To keep track of the organization’s finances

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A ticketing system’s core function is to write down, track, act upon, and record the results of service support actions. This invariably includes recording and categorizing user’s service requests or reported problems.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 518 in PDF)

33 / 161

What determines the frequency of backups?

A. The amount of storage space available

B. The level of system activity or volume

C. The type of backup policy

D. The amount of data needed to be backed up

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The frequency of backups is primarily determined by the level of activity or volume that a system experiences. If a system has a high level of activity or generates a significant amount of data, it might require more frequent backups.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 546 in PDF)

34 / 161

Where can heavy metals, found in components like motherboards and batteries of mobile or desktop devices, be properly disposed of?

A. In an everyday trash bin

B. In a local landfill

C. In an incinerator

D. An approved waste management or recycling facility

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Heavy metals found in components of electronic devices should be disposed of by an approved waste management or recycling facility to prevent environmental harm.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 570 in PDF)

35 / 161

Which of the following types of computer batteries requires special disposal methods due to their content of toxic materials?

A. Primary batteries

B. Alkaline batteries

C. Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cad) batteries

D. Lithium Ion (Li-Ion) batteries

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cad) batteries must be disposed of via special methods. This is because they contain materials that are toxic and pose a threat to both human health and the environment.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 569 in PDF)

36 / 161

Which of the following cmdlets is used to capture the log file from a single app in PowerShell?

A. Get-SubSystem

B. Get-AppPackageLog

C. Get-LogFile

D. Get-AppLogFile

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Get-AppPackageLog cmdlet is specifically used in PowerShell to access and return the log file from an app.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 613 in PDF)

37 / 161

Which of the following remote access methods is considered very secure and supports VPN connections?

A. RDP

B. SSH

C. Third-party remote access apps

D. None of the above

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: SSH is indeed very secure and also supports VPN connections. It uses encryption for the entire connection and supports other advanced security measures.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 628 in PDF)

38 / 161

Which of the following describes the importance of data integrity and preservation in the event of a security incident?

A. It determines the cost of the incident

B. It provides evidence for legal prosecutions

C. It helps identify the hacker

D. It validates the security protocols in place

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The integrity and preservation of data in a security incident matter because they can provide evidence of the incident that can be presented in court. Data is used to analyze the incident, prove culpability, and ensure justice.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 581 in PDF)

39 / 161

What is the primary purpose of an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?

A. To define the user’s training schedule

B. To identify the owner of the equipment

C. To define permissible and non-permissible user actions on an organization’s systems and equipment

D. To list out the contact information for technical support

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is used to clearly define what actions users are allowed and not allowed to take while using the equipment and systems of an organization. This includes actions on computers, phones, printers, and the network itself.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 524 in PDF)

40 / 161

What is the purpose of creating a system backup?

A. To protect against the loss of the hardware of a system

B. To protect against the loss of the software, data, and other soft assets of a system

C. To increase the speed of the system

D. To update the system software automatically

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A system backup is created to protect against the loss of the software, data, and other soft assets. This safety net can help restore the system to the point at which the backup was created, in case of a breach, catastrophe, or human error that affects the software or data of the system.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 542 in PDF)

41 / 161

Why is a computer technician’s appearance and attire crucial in a professional setting?

A. It helps a technician attract more customers

B. It affects a client’s perception of the technician’s professionalism

C. It can help a technician get promoted

D. It makes a technician more knowledgeable

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The way a technician presents themselves, including how they dress and speak, can greatly influence a client’s perception of their professionalism. A neat and orderly appearance can inspire confidence in the technician’s skills, while an unkempt appearance may make a client question their competence.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 592 in PDF)

42 / 161

What are some of the uses of the screen share feature in GUI-based remote clients?

A. To allow a trainer to share screens with students

B. To share the screen with a remote help desk worker

C. For transferring files from one host to another

D. For installing or removing software from remote devices

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The screen share feature is used to allow a client to share their screen with a remote help desk worker or for a trainer to share screens with students.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 627 in PDF)

43 / 161

What precautions should be taken when using compressed air for cleaning computer components?

A. Always keep the can of compressed air upside down

B. Inhale it regularly for safety

C. Ensure the can is kept upright and never shake it

D. Avoid using it on delicate components

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The correct answer is that you should keep the can upright when using it. Tilting it or turning it upside down can cause the liquid inside to come out, which can cause damage. You also should not shake the can, as there’s a risk of it exploding.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 572 in PDF)

44 / 161

What is an advantage of using a script for automated backups rather than ordinary file-copy tools?

A. Scripts can run on both Windows and Linux

B. Scripts can make the backup process faster

C. Scripts help include specific folders and files

D. Scripts can recover lost data

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The passage conveys that using scripts for automated backups allows you to include only specific folders and files. In contrast, ordinary file-copy tools, such as Robocopy in Windows, would carry out a more general backup.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 613 in PDF)

45 / 161

What should be done with a Lithium Ion (Li-Ion) battery that can no longer be recharged?

A. Dispose of it as normal trash

B. Take it to a recycle service for disposal

C. Dispose of it using any method available

D. Continue using it until it completely fails

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Lithium Ion (Li-Ion) batteries, when they can no longer be recharged or are damaged, should be taken to a recycle service for disposal. This is to ensure that the battery’s materials are properly handled and potentially recycled, as they can pose dangers like fire or explosion.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 569 in PDF)

46 / 161

What potentially harmful action can a non-malicious script perform?

A. Start the system firewall

B. Close port settings

C. Enable antimalware software

D. Shut down a software firewall

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Non-malicious scripts can perform a utility or change system settings that may affect a system. For example, they may shut down a software firewall, acting potentially harmful.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 615 in PDF)

47 / 161

Which among the following is not covered by OSHA and other safety regulations as stated in the text?

A. Ventilation

B. Protection against dust

C. Cable management

D. Electrical conductivity

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Electrical conductivity is not mentioned as a factor covered by the OSHA and other safety regulations in the provided text. The specified factors include ventilation, protection against dust, and cable management.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 561 in PDF)

48 / 161

Which type of fire extinguisher is recommended to extinguish an electrical fire that can occur inside a computer?

A. Class A fire extinguisher

B. Class B fire extinguisher

C. Class C fire extinguisher

D. Class D fire extinguisher

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Class C fire extinguishers are designed and certified to fight electrical fires, making them the safest option when dealing with a fire that may involve an electrical current.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 563 in PDF)

49 / 161

Which of the following types of backups does not reset the archive bit?

A. Full backup

B. Incremental backup

C. Differential backup

D. Synthetic backup

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A differential backup does not reset the archive bit unlike full and incremental backups. This means that it will continue to back up files that have been modified or created since the last full backup even if they have already been backed up previously. It will continue to do this until a new full backup is created.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 542 in PDF)

50 / 161

How are ticket categories typically used in the IT support context according to the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) material?

A. To identify the manufacturer of the device involved

B. For technician assignments, tracking, reporting, and analysis

C. For random assignments and allocation of annual budget

D. To select which incidents should be given priority over other tasks

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) material, tickets are categorized based on severity or urgency, with the device type possibly playing a factor. These categories aid in assignment of technicians, tracking progress, useful in reporting and for analysis.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 518 in PDF)

51 / 161

Why shouldn’t you touch connectors when working with computer components?

A. It can lead to data corruption

B. It can damage the components due to electrostatic discharge (ESD)

C. It can cause connection problems due to the oil on fingers

D. It can cause overheating

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: When you touch connectors, the oil from your fingers can cause problems with connectivity. This contaminant can impede a component’s ability to make proper electrical contact with other components, leading to system instability and malfunction.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 560 in PDF)

52 / 161

Which of the following elements does a regulation need to prescribe concerning data retention?

A. Cost of data storage

B. Acceptable storage media

C. Google cloud storage

D. Server cooling system

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: When defining regulations for data retention, it’s necessary to prescribe an acceptable storage media to ensure data is kept in a reliable and secure environment.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 588 in PDF)

53 / 161

Why does an owner assign an asset ID to a physical asset?

A. To better distinguish between different assets

B. To comply with manufacturer’s guidelines

C. To enhance the physical appearance of the assets

D. To identify the asset uniquely within an organization

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: By assigning an asset ID and associating it with an asset through an asset tag, sticker or label, the owner is able to identify the asset uniquely within a single organization. This process addresses the lack of uniformity between manufacturers’ serial numbers.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 522 in PDF)

54 / 161

What information should the records for a software asset include according to the text?

A. The software’s code

B. The personal details of the user

C. The licensing details and any seat allocations or usage limitations

D. The price of the software when it was originally released

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the text, the records for a software asset should include the licensing details and any seat allocations or usage limitations.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 523 in PDF)

55 / 161

What is a sandbox in software testing?

A. A software that directly alters the live production network

B. A software testing environment isolated from a production operating environment

C. A process for scenario-based testing

D. A real-time change implementation process

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A sandbox is a software testing environment that is isolated from production, allowing for independent testing and monitoring without affecting the live production systems. It can be a virtual machine, a cloud Platform as a Service (PaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), or a cloned environment that is not connected to the organization’s live production network.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 534 in PDF)

56 / 161

What is the primary function of power-handling apps (power management apps) in relation to PC hardware?

A. They interpret data from the OS to determine hardware status.

B. They increase power supply to all hardware devices.

C. They provide the ability to manage power output to selected hardware on a PC.

D. They are solely used to manage power configurations for mobile devices.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Power-handling apps mainly allow users to manage the power output to all or selected hardware on a PC. They can both increase and decrease power as well as implementing power-saving policies for automatic power management.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 557 in PDF)

57 / 161

What happens to the archive bit during a differential backup?

A. It gets turned off

B. It remains the same

C. It gets turned on

D. It gets deleted

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: During a differential backup, the archive bit does not change. It does not get turned off, unlike in full and incremental backup models. Therefore, the size of the backup continues to grow until the next full backup is performed.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 544 in PDF)

58 / 161

What are the two approaches of risk analysis?

A. Subjective and Objective

B. Quantitative and Qualitative

C. Personal and Impersonal

D. Measure and Analyze

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text specifically mentions that risk analysis has two approaches: quantitative analysis and qualitative analysis.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 537 in PDF)

59 / 161

Why do larger organizations, such as government entities, organize their data according to its sensitivity?

A. To ensure diversity in their computer hardware and software

B. To maintain compliance with government and internal regulations

C. To make their data more attractive to hackers

D. To reduce the amount of data they have to manage

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Large organizations, like government entities, organize their data based on sensitivity to ensure proper information security and to maintain compliance with various government and internal regulations. This includes rules about what software can be used and how certain types of data such as personally identifiable information (PII) should be handled.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 586 in PDF)

60 / 161

Which of the following are commonly used methods used in the tracking of evidence and preserving the chain of custody?

A. Shutting down the system and storing it where no one else can access it

B. Documenting when you took control of the system and actions you used

C. Transferring the system to another person without documenting the transfer

D. Ignoring the details regarding the location of the system

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: One of the key steps in preserving the chain of custody includes documenting when and how you took control of the system. This can include the actions used such as shutting down, unplugging, and moving the system, and the tracking of its location.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 580 in PDF)

61 / 161

What is the purpose of an antistatic bag when storing or transporting electronic components such as expansion cards and storage devices?

A. To increase the static charge

B. To direct the static charge from the outside to the inside

C. To dissipate any static charge

D. To insulate the components from any kind of charge

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Antistatic bags help dissipate any static charge, preventing potential damage to the electronic components. They can do this most effectively when they’re closed, hence the recommendation to fold the end over and tape it down if possible.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 560 in PDF)

62 / 161

Why is a dust-free environment important for computing equipment?

A. Dust can potentially cause devices to undercool

B. Dust never impedes the working of electronic devices

C. Dust intoxicates the operating system of the devices

D. Dust can clog up cooling vents and might contain conducting materials possibly causing the circuits to short

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A dust-free environment is important because dust can clog up cooling vents, causing devices to overheat. Furthermore, dust may contain materials that conduct electricity, such as metal or paint, that could short circuits or even cause explosions if it settles on a motherboard and accumulates in large amounts.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 572 in PDF)

63 / 161

According to the text, why is it important for a tech expert to avoid jargon and acronyms when speaking with customers?

A. It makes the tech expert sound more intelligent

B. It makes the conversation more casual and relaxed

C. It helps to ensure effective communication and customer understanding

D. It helps the tech expert to sound more prestigious

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text points out that sounding like an expert, avoiding jargon and acronyms, helps customers understand the expert’s technical language. Understanding technology to translate it into ordinary language marks the expertise of a professional. This aids in effective communication, which is why ’It helps to ensure effective communication and customer understanding’ is the right answer.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 593 in PDF)

64 / 161

Why should you completely unplug a modern computer system before servicing it?

A. To ensure electrical grounding

B. Modern motherboards always have a small amount of voltage running when the system is plugged in

C. It is not necessary to unplug the system before servicing it

D. To prevent power supplies from holding a dangerous electrical charge

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Modern motherboards always have a small amount of voltage running anytime the system is plugged in. Therefore, completely unplugging the system before servicing it minimises the risk of causing damage.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 562 in PDF)

65 / 161

What is typically true regarding the licensing of Windows, iOS, macOS, and Android operating systems and apps?

A. They are all open source and free to use

B. They require a commercial license and are mostly open source

C. They require a commercial license and are mostly closed source

D. They are all closed source and free to use

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The passage states that Windows, iOS, macOS, and Android operating systems and apps are typically closed source software that require a commercial license. This means they are not freely available for modification or distribution, unlike open source software.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 585 in PDF)

66 / 161

Why should you avoid being judgmental when a customer causes a problem?

A. Because it improves job security

B. Because it helps in fixing the problem faster

C. Because the customer might know more than you

D. Because it ensures a more professional attitude

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text mentions that when a customer causes a problem and you help fix it without being judgmental, it ensures that the customer will likely call you again in the future. This ensures job security.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 595 in PDF)

67 / 161

What is the purpose of the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) in a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A. To designate the length of time allowed to restore the organization’s operations.

B. To define the maximum amount of data loss that can be tolerated without causing a serious impact on an organization’s operations.

C. To identify standby computers and devices to be used in case of a disaster.

D. To detail the responsibilities of the members of the disaster recovery team.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is included in a disaster recovery plan, which defines the maximum amount of data loss that an organization can tolerate without it critically impacting their operations. It essentially determines how old the backups can be to still allow for successful restart of operations.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 545 in PDF)

68 / 161

What is the function of the ’shutdown -r’ command in Linux systems?

A. It shuts down the system immediately

B. It forces an authentication level

C. It restarts the system

D. It completes an installation or update

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’shutdown -r’ command in Linux is used when a system restart is necessary or desired.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 611 in PDF)

69 / 161

What are the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO) designations in a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

A. RPO is the length of time allowed to restore operations, while RTO is the maximum amount of data loss tolerated.

B. RPO defines the maximum amount of data loss that can be tolerated, while RTO designates the time allowed to restore operations.

C. RPO and RTO are measures of system efficiency during disaster recovery operations.

D. RPO is a measure of system redundancy, while RTO is a measure of backup data’s age.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP), Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the designation that defines the maximum amount of data loss that can be tolerated without causing a serious impact on an organization’s operations. On the other hand, Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the designation that shows the length of time allowed restoring the organization’s operations after a disaster.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 545 in PDF)

70 / 161

As a tech, you need to deal appropriately with customers’ confidential and private materials. This includes which of the following?

A. Files on the computer

B. Items on a physical desktop

C. Pages sitting in a printer tray

D. All of the above

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The proper handling of customers’ confidential and private materials includes all the listed items: files on the computer, items on a physical desktop, and pages sitting in a printer tray.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 597 in PDF)

71 / 161

What is the characteristic of a ’Critical’ severity level in a support ticket?

A. Affect only a single end user.

B. Has an effect on a limited number of end users or a specific group.

C. Not the result of an incident.

D. Usually affects more than a single workstation and can impact more than one end user.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the text, a critical issue is typically one that affects more than a single workstation and can impact more than one user. Examples include a network device failure, a possible data breach, or the results of a disaster.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 519 in PDF)

72 / 161

What should be done once a software license expires according to the license agreement terms?

A. The software should be uninstalled

B. The software can still be used without limitations

C. The software can be used on unlimited devices

D. The software does not need a license renewal

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Once a software license expires, the license agreement terms usually require it to be uninstalled immediately. If it is not uninstalled, the software becomes unusable or its use is limited to a small number of devices.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 584 in PDF)

73 / 161

What purpose does a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) serve?

A. It provides warranty and technical support information for products.

B. It identifies safety issues, handling, transport, and disposal methods for hazardous materials.

C. It gives tally of the toxic materials present in a product.

D. It provides the price and selling data of a product.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) are documents that provide critical information about the hazardous properties of a chemical, instructions for its safe handling and transport, and steps for its safe disposal. They are meant to inform users about the safety protocols that need to be followed while handling chemicals and similar products.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 568 in PDF)

74 / 161

What can occur if there is no definitive scope statement in project management regarding a requested change?

A. Scope creep

B. Process optimization

C. Project simplification

D. Increased resource allocation

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Scope creep refers to the gradual change in the boundaries and the areas affected by the change in a project. This can occur when there is no definitive scope statement that delineates exactly what is to be changed or affected by the change.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 536 in PDF)

75 / 161

Which of the following statements best describes when an incident should be reported to the management and possibly law enforcement?

A. An incident that has a negligible or non-existent impact on the organization’s operations, assets, or personnel.

B. An incident that impacts an organization’s operations, assets, or personnel.

C. An incident that doesn’t involve a violation of a local, state, or national ordinance, law, or regulation.

D. An incident that only indirectly affects the operations, assets, or personnel of the organization.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Any event or occurrence that adversely impacts an organization and its functions should be reported to the management and possibly to law enforcement, particularly if it contravenes a local, state, or national law or regulation.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 581 in PDF)

76 / 161

Why is it critical to wear safety goggles when working with an old PC, specifically when cutting a piece of aluminum or cleaning?

A. To protect from dust only

B. To give a professional appearance

C. To shield the eyes from potential metal shards

D. To enhance vision for detailed work

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Safety goggles provide protection for the eyes from possible small shards of metal that could damage your eyesight while cutting a piece of aluminum or cleaning a PC.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 564 in PDF)

77 / 161

Why is it not advisable to disclose experiences about a job via social media outlets according to CompTIA A+ 220-1102?

A. It wastes time during job hours

B. It may violate customer privacy and professional ethics

C. It makes you look unprofessional to your co-workers

D. It can get your social media accounts suspended

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The passage discourages disclosing experiences about a job via social media outlets due to the impact it could have on client confidentiality and professional ethics. Sharing details about a job could potentially expose sensitive customer information and is hence inappropriate professionally.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 596 in PDF)

78 / 161

What is the best approach to handle a difficult customer or situation in IT Support?

A. Argue with the customer and blame them for the computer problem

B. Respond defensively and prove that the problem is not your fault

C. Maintain a positive attitude and project confidence in solving the problem

D. Convince the customer that the problem is too complex and will take a long time to fix

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the study material, maintaining a positive attitude and projecting confidence that you can solve the problem is the best approach when dealing with a difficult customer or situation in IT Support.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 593 in PDF)

79 / 161

Which command can be used to manage the module update process in a Windows 10/11 system?

A. wusa.exe

B. apt-get/apt

C. yum

D. Install-Module

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Install-Module cmdlet in PowerShell contains a variety of cmdlets that can be applied to manage the module update process in a Windows 10/11 system.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 614 in PDF)

80 / 161

What is the first step in all formal change management programs?

A. Submitting the change request form

B. Discussing the procedures or processes to be created

C. Submitting the purpose of the change

D. Applying the proposed changes to the system, process, or method

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text states that all formal change management programs begin with the submission of the data on the change request form. Thus, submitting the change request form is the first step.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 535 in PDF)

81 / 161

What is the extension .js used for and what language does it represent?

A. It refers to Java scripts and represents the Java programming language

B. It refers to JavaScript scripts and represents an object-based, interpreted language with no connection to the Java language

C. It represents the JavaScript scripting language for UNIX systems which need execute permission to run

D. It represents the JavaScript shell files used in Linux or macOS in Terminal mode

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The .js extension is used for JavaScript scripts. JavaScript is widely used in web development and web applications, web servers and server apps, smartwatch and mobile apps, and more. It is an object-based, interpreted language that, despite its name, has no connection to the Java programming language.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 607 in PDF)

82 / 161

What is the function of file transfer tools in relation to internet based services?

A. They install or remove software.

B. They initiate backups.

C. They move a file or a copy of a file from one host to another either locally or remotely.

D. They troubleshoot workstation or network issues.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: File transfer tools, according to the passage, simply move a file or a copy of a file from one host to another, either locally or remotely, through protocols like FTP, HTTP, BitTorrent and others.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 628 in PDF)

83 / 161

What are the three primary fields a service ticket must have during its life cycle?

A. Problem description, Diagnostics, User feedback

B. Problem description, Progress (notes), Problem resolution

C. Problem discovery, Action plan, Solution verification

D. Problem statement, Action steps, Solution verification

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text states that the three primary fields a service ticket must include during its lifecycle are: Problem description, Progress (notes), and Problem resolution.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 521 in PDF)

84 / 161

What are the two primary criteria governing data retention policies?

A. Recovery point and storage requirements

B. Laws/regulations and the owner’s specific needs

C. External forces and internal forces

D. Duration and disposal requirements

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The two primary criteria governing data retention policies are laws/regulations and the owner’s specific needs. Laws and regulations may have stipulations about how certain data should be stored and how long it should be kept, while the owner’s specific needs will often revolve around their recovery point, or the specific moment in time to which they would like to restore their data after a data loss event.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 547 in PDF)

85 / 161

What are some hazards that can damage computer components during storage and handling?

A. Heat, moisture, and dust

B. Extreme cold only

C. Use of anti-static wrist strap

D. Frequent use

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Heat can cause plastics to fade and become brittle, moisture can induce rust, corrosion, and electrical shorts, and dust can cause the cooling systems of the computer to clog.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 559 in PDF)

86 / 161

What does the ’Problem’ category in a ticketing system typically record?

A. New user account creations

B. Routine tasks and configurations

C. Reports of incidents needing further investigation

D. Failures that end users are unable to resolve

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Problem’ category in a ticketing system is dedicated to record incidents that need further investigation. These tickets are necessarily generated by the support staff.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 518 in PDF)

87 / 161

What can be described about a full backup?

A. Only copies files and folders modified since the last full or incremental backup.

B. It doesn’t reset the archive bit and continues to grow until the next full backup.

C. It captures everything on a storage device and the backup size is the same as the source data.

D. It is made from other backups, not directly from the original data source.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In a full backup, all the data from a storage device is included, meaning the backup size (unless compressed or encrypted) is equivalent to the source data’s size. A full backup also switches off the archive bit for all the files or folders included in the backup. This type of backup offers the simplest recovery process but requires the most space and time.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 543 in PDF)

88 / 161

What are the steps to restore a system from a synthetic full backup scheme?

A. Restore the last incremental backup and then restore the synthetic full backup

B. Restore the synthetic backup, then restore the incremental backups until the system crash point

C. Restore the last synthetic full backup, then restore the incremental backups to reach the RPO

D. Restore the synthetic full backup, then perform a system reboot

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Restoring from a synthetic full backup scheme involves first restoring the last synthetic full backup, then restoring the incremental backups to reach the Recovery Point Objective (RPO). This sequence helps restore the system to the point it was before the issue that necessitated the restore occurred.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 546 in PDF)

89 / 161

Which term best describes the role of the system providing access to its desktop in a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) connection?

A. Client

B. Server

C. User

D. Responder

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the context of Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), the system providing access to its desktop is described as a ’server’. The server here hosts the GUI and provides the mechanisms for a remote ’client’ to interact with it. The client, in this case, is the connecting system.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 620 in PDF)

90 / 161

Why is it important to follow up with the customer/user at a later date?

A. To keep the customer updated with ongoing issues

B. To ask the customer for a feedback on your performance

C. To verify their satisfaction with your service

D. To pressure the customer into giving you a positive rating

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Ensuring customer satisfaction is important in maintaining professional relationships and getting feedback. This can be done through a simple follow up, usually through a phone call to confirm their happiness with your work.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 597 in PDF)

91 / 161

Who is typically appointed to manage and oversee the completion of an approved implementation plan?

A. Network administrator

B. Tech support agent

C. Change coordinator or change manager

D. End-user tester

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text states that a responsible staff member, also known as a change coordinator or change manager, is appointed to manage and oversee the completion of an approved implementation plan.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 535 in PDF)

92 / 161

What is a characteristic of Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cad) batteries?

A. They can be disposed of as normal trash

B. They are non-rechargeable

C. They must be recharged frequently and require special disposal methods

D. They pose no threat to human health and the environment

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the text, Ni-Cad batteries require frequent recharging and special disposal methods are required due to their toxicity to both human health and the environment.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 569 in PDF)

93 / 161

Which of the following statements accurately reflects proper power handling practices?

A. Surge protector plug strips should be used for network devices.

B. All servers and internetworking devices should be connected to a power-saving app.

C. Uninterruptable power supply (UPS) units are unnecessary for servers and internetworking devices.

D. All servers and internetworking devices should be connected to a UPS.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: To ensure continuous uptime and electrical power availability even in the event of power surges or brownouts, best practices suggest installing quality uninterruptable power supply (UPS) units. All servers and internetworking devices should be connected to a UPS.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 555 in PDF)

94 / 161

What does Desktop Management Software allow an organization to do?

A. Invite employees to video conferencing meetings

B. Transfer files from one host to another

C. Secure and manage all of the computing devices it owns

D. Share screens with their clients

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Desktop Management Software allows an organization to secure and manage some or all of the computing devices it owns, either locally or remotely. This helps the IT department to keep desktop computers up to date in groups or across the board. It can be used to install or remove software, initiate backups, troubleshoot workstation or network issues, and access, share, or archive individual files, file systems, or the contents of a storage devices.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 628 in PDF)

95 / 161

What is the purpose of a portable antistatic mat?

A. To store tools and components during work

B. To dissipate Electrostatic Discharge (ESD)

C. To provide a surface to stand on during work

D. To enhance the aesthetic appeal of your workspace

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Portable antistatic mats are designed to provide a work surface that dissipates Electrostatic Discharge (ESD), thereby reducing the potential for damage to sensitive electronic components.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 555 in PDF)

96 / 161

What can cause inadvertent errors by possibly mishandling a system’s resources?

A. Well structured and thoroughly tested scripts

B. Any OS

C. Scripts with cmdlets or commands that perform an action on a system resource

D. The scripting languages or its interpreter, which are generally safe

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text mentions that scripts that contain one or more cmdlets or commands performing action on system resources can mishandle resources and cause inadvertent errors.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 615 in PDF)

97 / 161

What is the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) in context of Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

A. The RTO designates the amount of data loss that can be tolerated without causing an impact on an organization’s operations.

B. The RTO defines the process used to restore the system.

C. The RTO designates the length of time allowed to restore the organization’s operations.

D. The RTO identifies standby computers and devices to be used in case of a disaster.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the context of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP), the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) designates the length of time allowed to restore the organization’s operations after a disaster, such as a lightning strike, hurricane, tornado, fire, flood, or earthquake.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 545 in PDF)

98 / 161

Why is grounding yourself important when working on or with a computer?

A. It helps to maintain a steady hand

B. It can reduce the risk of ESD damage

C. It ensures better connection with computer components

D. It is a pure precautionary measure and has no direct effects

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Grounding yourself can eliminate any build up of static electricity that your body may have accumulated, which can reduce the risk of ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) damage to the computer components.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 560 in PDF)

99 / 161

Which of the following is true regarding hardware asset assignment?

A. Hardware assets can only be assigned to one person or department.

B. Hardware assets can only be shared among all users.

C. Hardware assets can either be assigned to one person/department or shared among all users.

D. Hardware assets cannot be assigned or shared.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text points out that hardware assets such as computers, mobile devices, and telephones can be specifically assigned to one person or department. However, some assets, like servers and network devices, are shared assets that all users use.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 523 in PDF)

100 / 161

What type of environment can be used to edit and run Python scripts?

A. Integrated Development Environment (IDE)

B. Integrated Development and Learning Environment (IDLE)

C. Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE)

D. All of the above

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: An Integrated Development Environment (IDE), Integrated Development and Learning Environment (IDLE), or Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) can all be used to edit and run Python scripts. These environment types facilitate the process of creating, testing, and debugging scripts.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 609 in PDF)

101 / 161

What are the essential elements of a successful escalation plan with regards to handling service tickets?

A. Definition of issues that require escalation, ticket tracking, and a buffet lunch

B. Documentation of the escalation of a ticket, tracking process of ticket, and random assignment of tickets

C. Definition of issues that require escalation, ticket initiator feedback, and documentation of the resolution of the issue

D. Keeping the ticket initiator informed, neglecting the history of tickets, and documentation of the ticket’s escalation

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: These three points are part of the elements mentioned in a successful escalation plan for handling service tickets namely, defining the issues needing escalation, keeping the ticket initiators informed, and documenting the resolution of issues.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 519 in PDF)

102 / 161

Why is it important to ask open-ended questions when clarifying customer statements in IT support?

A. To make the customer defensive

B. To understand the scope and nature of the problem

C. To impress the customer with technical jargon

D. To show the customer you are knowledgeable

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Open-ended questions are asked to get more detail about the issue, which helps in understanding the scope and nature of the problem. It helps in narrowing down the issue.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 596 in PDF)

103 / 161

What is the importance of active listening and note-taking in effective communication while working on tech support?

A. To interpret the non-technical language of the customer

B. To interrupt the customer and correct their language errors

C. To make the customer learn the technical language

D. To keep a record of all customers’ inquiries

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the text, the importance of actively listening to the client is stressed. It allows a more detailed understanding of the issue, through interpreting the non-technical language of the customer. It’s not always about immediate comprehension, but taking notes to decipher what the client is trying to communicate. For instance, a customer referring to the ’CPU’ might be talking about the system unit or case, a ticking sound could indicate a dying hard drive, etc. Active listening and note taking, therefore, are crucial in understanding and troubleshooting the problem.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 593 in PDF)

104 / 161

What are some common steps that should be taken to preserve evidence and establish a chain of custody in case of a computer violation?

A. Shut down the system, document your actions, and carefully record the transfer of custody.

B. Keep the system running, document your actions, and carefully record the transfer of custody.

C. Shut down the system, bypass documentation, and carelessly record the transfer of custody.

D. Leave the system in a public place, document your actions, and carefully record the transfer of custody.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the case of a computer violation, steps that should be taken to preserve evidence include shutting down the system, documenting when you took control of the system and the actions you used such as shutting it down, unplugging it, moving it and so on. You must also track its location. If another person takes control of the system, document the transfer of custody.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 579 in PDF)

105 / 161

What should be included in an organization’s information system documentation?

A. Only the preceding elements

B. Only incident reports

C. Other types of documents, along with most or all of the preceding elements

D. Only basic information about the system

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The documentation should ideally include other types of documents in addition to most or all of the elements mentioned before.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 523 in PDF)

106 / 161

What are the three basic power plans that the Power Manager app can enable or disable in a macOS system?

A. Maximum, High Performance, and Balanced

B. Balanced, High Performance, and Power Saver

C. Low, Medium, and High

D. Balanced, Efficient, and High Performance

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Power Manager app on a macOS system enables or disables three basic power plans: Balanced, High Performance, and Power Saver.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 558 in PDF)

107 / 161

How can you install multiple applications on several standalone or networked workstations at the same time?

A. Use an online installer and install each app individually

B. Use a portable storage device and copy the apps manually on all the machines

C. Use a professional service

D. Use an installation script

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: As the text mentions, one could use an installation script to install several apps simultaneously and make the process more efficient. This could allow them to avoid installing each app individually.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 612 in PDF)

108 / 161

Which of the following best describes a ’Critical’ issue based on a three-level severity scale for support tickets?

A. They affect only a single end user and are reported as non-critical.

B. They may have an effect on a limited number of end users or a specific group of users.

C. They usually affect more than a single workstation and can impact more than one user.

D. They are typically not the result of an incident.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A ’Critical’ issue in a support ticket’s severity level is defined as those which usually affect more than a single workstation and can impact more than one end user. They might involve significant problems like a network device failure, a data breach, or the results of a disaster.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 518 in PDF)

109 / 161

What is a power surge, also known as power spike, as mentioned in the CompTIA A+ study material?

A. It is when the voltage on your power line drops dramatically but does not go out completely.

B. It is when the electricity goes out completely causing data loss or corruption.

C. It is when the voltage on your power line suddenly rises to above normal levels.

D. It is when a battery backup provides electrical power to keep a system running in the event of a power interruption.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text states that power surges, also known as power spikes, occur when the voltage on your power line suddenly rises to above normal levels. This sudden rise in voltage is extremely dangerous and can destroy computers, monitors, and any other component plugged into the affected power lines.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 573 in PDF)

110 / 161

What is the best practice for disposing of laser printer or copier toner cartridges?

A. Thrown them in the garbage

B. Recycle them

C. Burn them

D. Flush them down the drain

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text indicates that the best practice for disposing of toner cartridges is recycling. They can be dropped off at a retailer, mailed to the manufacturer or recycler, or given to a nonprofit agency for recycling.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 570 in PDF)

111 / 161

What are the three default power plans available on Windows 10?

A. Balanced, Max Performance, and Power Saver

B. Moderate, High Performance, and Power Saver

C. Balanced, High Performance, and Power Saver

D. Regular, Maximum, and Power Saver

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Windows 10 has three power plans available by default: Balanced, High Performance, and Power Saver.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 557 in PDF)

112 / 161

What is the base element of Remote Monitoring and Management (RMM) services?

A. The managed IT service providers

B. The network devices and servers

C. An agent installed on each network workstation or node

D. The subscriber

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The basic component of RMM services is an agent installed on each network workstation or node. This agent provides the management system with the information it needs and any issues encountered will trigger an alert.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 625 in PDF)

113 / 161

What does the procurement lifecycle plan for an asset typically include?

A. Procedures for asset disposal and replacement funds allocation

B. Expected end of life for software assets

C. Procedures for asset depreciation

D. Identity of a public supplier

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The procurement lifecycle plan for an asset includes the procedures for requesting an improvement, upgrade, or replacement asset; the identity of a trusted supplier; and the budget for the replacement. It also includes procedures and methods of the various departments involved in the use, replacement, or disposal of the asset.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 523 in PDF)

114 / 161

Which of the following commands is used to initiate updates on a Windows 10/11 system?

A. apt-get/apt

B. Install-Module

C. wusa.exe

D. yum

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Windows Update Standalone Installer (wusa.exe) can be initiated from a script and used to complete routine update tasks.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 614 in PDF)

115 / 161

What is the purpose of a change request form according to the given text?

A. To provide feedback on a system

B. To request a change to a system, process, or method

C. To report software bugs

D. To request additional features in a system

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A change request form is filled in by a user who wants a system, process, or method to be changed. This change could involve the creation of a new process, modifications or additions to an existing one, or the abandonment of a current one.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 535 in PDF)

116 / 161

What is the purpose of a change request as per the context?

A. To enforce new laws

B. To provide reasons or requirements for a necessary change

C. To change request procedures

D. To revise old laws

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the passage, the main purpose of a change request is to state the reasons or requirements that make a change necessary. It can entail details about new laws, guidelines, or procedures.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 536 in PDF)

117 / 161

Which executable is used to run the Microsoft Remote Assistance application through a Command Prompt or a PowerShell command prompt?

A. msassist.exe

B. mshelp.exe

C. mrassist.exe

D. msra.exe

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The executable used to run the Microsoft Remote Assistance application through a Command Prompt or a PowerShell command prompt is ’msra.exe’.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 625 in PDF)

118 / 161

In the process of chain of custody, what steps need to be taken to preserve the evidence in a system violation?

A. Shut the system down and store it where others can access it

B. Forget about recording who had touched it and where it was previously located

C. Documenting the transfer of custody only when you feel it is necessary

D. Document when you took control of the system and the actions you used such as shutting it down, unplugging it, moving it

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: This is correct because the chain of custody requires meticulous documentation of every action involving the system right from when the violation was detected. This includes when and how you took control of the system.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 579 in PDF)

119 / 161

What is the purpose of a network topology diagram?

A. To provide a visual representation of hardware on the network and their interactions

B. To indicate the price of each component in a network

C. To generate a report on the performance of each component on the network

D. To provide a step-by-step guide on setting up a network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A network topology diagram provides a visual guide to the hardware present on a network, and also indicates how these components are interconnected. This effectively gives a comprehensive representation of the network structure.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 525 in PDF)

120 / 161

What does the PowerShell cmdlet ’Restart-Computer’ do?

A. Restarts the operating system on local and remote computers.

B. Shuts down the operating system on local and remote computers.

C. Restarts only the local computer.

D. Removes the operating system on local and remote computers.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Restart-Computer’ PowerShell cmdlet is used to restart the operating system on both local and remote computers. Its parameters can be used to set authentication levels, alternate credentials, or force an immediate restart.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 611 in PDF)

121 / 161

What are the characteristics of an incremental backup?

A. It captures everything on a storage device, turning off the archive bit for all files or folders backed up.

B. It copies only those files and folders modified since the last full or incremental backup, and turns off the archive bit every time a file or folder is added to the backup.

C. It includes only files modified or created since the last full backup and does not reset the archive bit.

D. It’s built from a normal full backup and incremental backups.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: An incremental backup includes only those files and folders that have been modified since the last full or incremental backup. As files or folders are added to an incremental backup, their archive bit is turned off.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 543 in PDF)

122 / 161

Which of the following regulates the use of personally identifiable information and applies to organizations that handle the PII of EU citizens, regardless of the organization’s geographic location?

A. PHI

B. PII

C. GDPR

D. PCI DSS

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation. It is the European Union (EU) standard for data protection that applies to all organizations that handle the Personally Identifiable Information (PII) of EU citizens, regardless of the organization’s geographic location. It also regulates browser cookie disclosures and other types of personal data use.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 586 in PDF)

123 / 161

What are the conditions that greatly increase the potential for a computer-killing ESD (Electrostatic Discharge) zap?

A. Hot and humid weather

B. Cold and dry weather

C. Warm and moist weather

D. Wet and windy weather

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text states that if the weather is cold and dry, the potential for a computer-killing ESD zap is greatly increased. Therefore, cold and dry weather conditions are known to largely increase this potential.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 571 in PDF)

124 / 161

In troubleshooting, why might the date and time of a change be important?

A. To track the cost of changes

B. To determine the sequence of changes

C. To enhance the aesthetics of logs

D. To count the number of changes

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Knowing the date and time of a change, especially when multiple changes are made in a short time span, helps to establish the sequencing of actions. This can be crucial for understanding what led to a specific outcome in the system.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 536 in PDF)

125 / 161

What is a necessary skill for a professional tech when dealing with difficult customers in stressful situations?

A. Aggression

B. Ignoring the customer

C. Defusing the tension

D. Placing blame on the customer

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: As outlined in the text, a professional tech needs to know how to defuse the tension when dealing with difficult customers in stressful situations. This means calming the customer down and attempting to resolve the issue they are faced with.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 595 in PDF)

126 / 161

What should you do when a customer’s religious holiday conflicts with your work schedule based on the ’Be Culturally Sensitive’ section of the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) study material?

A. Ask the customer to schedule for another day

B. Inform your supervisor about the situation

C. Continue with your schedule regardless

D. Adjust your schedule to accommodate the customer

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The study material emphasizes graciousness in dealing with cultural differences. It states that if a customer’s religious holiday conflicts with your work schedule, the customer wins – implying that you should adjust your schedule to accommodate them.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 594 in PDF)

127 / 161

What is the primary purpose of an incident report in IT?

A. To document employee performance metrics

B. To identify the underlying causes of an incident or event

C. To gather opinions on a new product or service

D. To inform stakeholders of a company’s annual report

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: An incident report in IT primarily serves to identify the underlying causes of an incident or event. This information is then used to guide the development of preventive or remediation measures to prevent the incident or event from happening again.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 526 in PDF)

128 / 161

What steps should be followed when restoring the system from a differential backup scheme?

A. Restore the differential backup only.

B. Restore the last reliable full backup only.

C. Restore both the last reliable full backup and the differential backup.

D. None of the above steps are required.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: To restore a system from a differential backup scheme, it is necessary to first restore the last reliable full backup. Afterwards, restore the differential backup taken at the recovery point designated by the RPO (Recovery Point Objective) and RTO (Recovery Time Objective) in the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 546 in PDF)

129 / 161

What is an effective strategy to maintain software compliance?

A. Maintain an explicit list of allowed software and controls on installation

B. Don’t install any programs

C. Only install free software

D. Ignore compliance and install as you wish

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Maintaining a list of allowed software and keeping strict control on who can install programs is an effective method for staying in compliance with software licenses as described in the passage.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 583 in PDF)

130 / 161

What should you do with customers’ confidential and private materials when performing a repair?

A. Browse through them to understand the customer better

B. Ignore them completely

C. Deal appropriately with them and avoid accessing or inspecting them

D. Use them as an example to teach other customers

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: When dealing with customers’ confidential and private materials, it’s crucial to maintain professionalism and uphold privacy standards by not accessing or inspecting these materials. Violation of this can lead to loss of trust, credibility, and can have severe consequences such as job loss.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 597 in PDF)

131 / 161

Why is a proper grounding necessary in an AC-powered equipment that uses a three-prong cable?

A. To ensure the flow of AC current

B. To prevent overheating of the equipment

C. To send power surges to a safe location

D. To increase the voltage of the AC power

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Surge suppression relies on having a working ground where excess power (in the form of power surges) can be safely sent. A proper grounding is crucial to maintain system safety and functionality.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 555 in PDF)

132 / 161

What does videoconferencing software do?

A. It provides a command-line interface to operate computers remotely

B. It sets up an audio and video link between two or more participants to share and collaborate on files

C. It provides an interface to transfer files from one host to another

D. It allows an organization to manage and secure all of the computing devices it owns

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the passage, videoconferencing software sets up an audio and video link between participants to allow for file sharing and collaboration. It does not provide a command-line interface, manage computing devices, or facilitate file transfers. Those are functions of other types of software.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 627 in PDF)

133 / 161

What features might third-party remote access tools include?

A. Support for Windows, macOS, and Linux clients and remote access, using a GUI or CLI

B. Video conferencing and file transferring

C. Screen sharing and management of local or remote desktops

D. All of the above

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Third-party remote access tools can include all the mentioned features which are support for different operating systems with both GUI and CLI, the capability of videoconferencing, file transferring and screen sharing, as well as managing either local or remote desktops.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 627 in PDF)

134 / 161

What is the purpose of a change management policy?

A. To generate changes by introducing a new service or product

B. To ensure that the application of a change doesn’t adversely impact the operation of an organization

C. To correct errors or mistakes in existing procedures

D. To add, alter, or delete content from a standard operating procedure

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the passage, the purpose for a change management policy is to ensure that the implementation of a change, be it due to a new product, process improvement, or corrections in existing procedures, does not negatively impact the functioning of the organization.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 532 in PDF)

135 / 161

What is the benefit of keeping computer hardware and software as uniform as possible in larger organizations like government entities?

A. They can handle sensitive data more maturely

B. It simplifies the maintenance of compliance with government and internal regulations

C. They can avoid government audits

D. It improves efficiency of online systems

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Uniform hardware and software allow organizations to maintain compliance with the necessary regulations with ease because the same set of rules and measures apply across the board, making management easier.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 526 in PDF)

136 / 161

What should be included in the proper documentation of services provided after carrying out a repair or replacement work on a customer’s computer?

A. The problem description, the time and day work started, the time work was completed, total hours worked, and list of parts replaced.

B. The customer’s browsing history, downloads, and other private materials viewed during the repair.

C. The detailed personal information of the customer for future reference by the technician.

D. The company’s internal repair policies and the technician’s personal notes during the repair.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Proper documentation after a service involves detailing the problem, the duration of the work including start and end times, total working hours, and any components that were replaced. This ensures a clear record of what services were performed and aids in transparency and accountability.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 597 in PDF)

137 / 161

What does the ’.bat’ file extension indicate and how can it be used?

A. It is a scripting language developed for Linux and can be used with an integrated scripting environment.

B. It is a simple scripting language developed for MS-DOS and can be used to run commands in sequence from the command prompt in Windows.

C. It is a Visual Basic Script used by Microsoft applications.

D. It is a type of executable file used originally on UNIX systems in Terminal mode.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The .bat file extension is used by the simple scripting language originally developed for MS-DOS and is still used from the command prompt in Windows. It can run commands in sequence, display each command as it runs, and include remarks that explain the purpose of the file.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 601 in PDF)

138 / 161

What are the key steps to be followed in the documentation process during an incident investigation?

A. Document the incident, collect digital evidence, apply a forensic imaging tool, create a hash value for each device, disable encryption, transport and store evidence in a secure location

B. Ignore any software used during the incident, collect digital evidence, encrypt data, transport evidence in a public location

C. Do not document the incident, collect physical evidence only, ignore all digital data, transport evidence without secure methods

D. Only document the incident and ignore collection of any evidence

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The correct answer shows the actual steps listed in the text, starting with documenting the incident and including the collection of digital evidence, application of a forensic imaging tool, creation of a hash value for each storage device, disabling of encryption, and secure transportation and storage of evidence.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 582 in PDF)

139 / 161

What is the main purpose of Digital Rights Management (DRM)?

A. To enhance the quality of audio and video recordings

B. To monitor accesses to copyrighted objects and protect the rights of copyright holders

C. To enable peer-to-peer object exchanges and torrent sites

D. To stimulate the growth of piracy

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Digital Rights Management (DRM) is a proprietary technology used to protect the rights of copyright holders by monitoring access to copyrighted objects (such as documents, audio and video recordings, and other forms of intellectual property) and preventing unauthorized use or modification of the protected materials.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 586 in PDF)

140 / 161

Which of the following correctly describes the ’Progress (notes)’ field in a standard IT service report?

A. It provides a place for entering a brief description of the issue.

B. It gives an overview of the action plan to resolve the issue.

C. It requires multiple entries to document the troubleshooting, diagnostic, and testing performed.

D. It should contain the results of a full system test.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Progress (notes)’ field often requires multiple entries throughout the life of a ticket. Each entry should describe and report the troubleshooting, diagnostic, and testing that were performed to identify, verify, and isolate the reported or associated problems.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 520 in PDF)

141 / 161

What are the components to include when testing a backup scheme?

A. Restore a sample data into a test folder, use a virtual machine for testing, verification using hashing, and regular testing every six to nine months.

B. Backing up all data weekly, performing a full system restore, periodic verification using physical media, and testing once a year.

C. Backing up data daily, restoring a sample data into a live environment, and performing a test every six months.

D. Performing a full restore monthly, verification through physical records, and testing annually.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The process for testing a backup scheme should include restoring a sample data into a designated test folder to prevent accidental overwriting of production data. A virtual machine is a good choice for testing backup schemes. Verification should be done using hashing to confirm that the copy from the backup media is valid. Finally, the backup plan should be tested regularly, preferably every six to nine months.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 548 in PDF)

142 / 161

Who typically scrutinizes and approves a major change that has a broad impact in an organization?

A. Only the department supervisor

B. Only the impacted stakeholders

C. The department manager

D. A committee consisting of management, technical experts, and impacted stakeholders

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: As per the information provided, a major change that impacts broadly on an organization is scrutinized by a committee usually referred as change advisory board or change control board. This committee comprises of management, technical experts, and impacted stakeholders.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 537 in PDF)

143 / 161

What are some potential issues which can be caused or initiated by a script?

A. They are exclusively proprietary.

B. They never require an installation of an interpreter.

C. They can be slower than compiled programs.

D. They are typically faster than other types of programs.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Scripts, due to their need to be interpreted and not directly compiled, can potentially operate slower than compiled programs.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 614 in PDF)

144 / 161

What are the three primary fields that must be filled during a ticket’s lifecycle?

A. Problem title, problem explanation, problem rating

B. Problem description, progress, problem resolution

C. Problem classification, problem description, progress

D. Problem resolution, problem classification, progress

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: As per the text, the ’problem description’, ’progress (notes)’, and ’problem resolution’ are the three primary fields that must be filled in during the life cycle of a ticket.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 520 in PDF)

145 / 161

What describes the process of a synthetic backup?

A. This backup is made directly from an original data source

B. It includes only those files and folders modified since the last full backup

C. It is built from the normal full backup and the incremental backups

D. This type of backup captures everything on a storage device

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A synthetic backup is made from other backups: a normal full incremental backup chain is executed to start the process, and then a synthetic full backup is built from the normal full backup and the incremental backups.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 544 in PDF)

146 / 161

On Linux systems, which commands can be executed within a Bash script to update an app?

A. Install-Module

B. wusa.exe

C. apt-get/apt or yum

D. Windows Update Standalone Installer

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: On Linux systems, the apt-get/apt or yum command can be executed from within a Bash script to install an app as well as update it.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 614 in PDF)

147 / 161

Which of the following is the most accurate description of ’Self Grounding’ according to the text?

A. Unplugging the computer before handling components

B. Using an anti-static mat while handling components

C. Wearing an anti-static wristband

D. Touching a metal surface before handling computer components

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text defines self-grounding as a method used to prevent the effects of Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). It is done by touching a metal surface such as the exterior of the power supply before touching any system components.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 555 in PDF)

148 / 161

What does expectations management in a computer troubleshooting scenario entail?

A. Providing a time estimate to the customer about how long it will take you to fix the problem, and updating them if situations change.

B. Providing status updates only if things are taking longer than predicted.

C. Giving the customer an initial estimate and avoiding further communication until the problem is fixed.

D. Providing the most cost-effective solution without considering other factors.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Expectations management involves both providing an accurate initial estimate to the customer about the time it will take to fix an issue, and keeping the customer updated on changing situations, which may include finishing before or beyond the initial estimated time.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 596　in

149 / 161

Which of the following best describes the ’Major’ level of the severity scale in a support ticket system?

A. Issues that affect more than a single workstation.

B. Problems that only affect a single end user and are reported as non-critical.

C. Incidents that may affect a limited number of end users or a specific group.

D. Issues that are the result of a catastrophe or a possible data breach.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Major level of the severity scale refers to issues or incidents that have an effect on a limited number of end users or a specific group of end users.These could also be issues concerning an in-house security event.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 519 in PDF)

150 / 161

Which of the following best describes a ’Minor’ issue based on the three-level severity scale in a support ticket?

A. It usually affects more than a single workstation.

B. It may concern an in-house security event.

C. It affects only a single end user and is reported as non-critical.

D. Its severity can be divided into impact and urgency.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Within a three-level severity scale of a support ticket, ’Minor’ issues are problems that affect only a single end user and were reported as non-critical. They are typically not the result of an incident.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 519 in PDF)

151 / 161

What is an important aspect of an organization’s knowledge base as related to Information Technology (IT)?

A. A collection of online music for all employees during work hours

B. A directory of all employees and their job descriptions

C. A compilation of documents identifying the equipment and software in use, problems detected, and solutions applied along with links to relevant information

D. A record of each employee’s personal use of company devices and software

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the text, an IT knowledge base should be a compiled documentation of equipment and software in use, any problems detected, solutions applied for these problems and resources to get more knowledge about products or issues. It should also include things like patch and update information for the various software, and the organization’s own troubleshooting knowledge.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 528 in PDF)

152 / 161

Which environmental factors are detrimental to the smooth operation and lifespan of computing equipment?

A. Excessive heat, dust, and humidity

B. High frequency radiation and heat

C. Cold temperature and high humidity

D. Static electricity and electromagnetic fields

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The given text mentions, ’Proper environmental controls can help to secure servers and workstations from environmental impacts, especially those from excessive heat, dust, and humidity.’ These are key factors that can reduce the lifespan and disrupt the smooth functioning of the equipment.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 571 in PDF)

153 / 161

What strategies should be included in the plan for gaining end-user acceptance in a change project?

A. Excluding non-supervisory stakeholders from the CAB

B. Incorporating user acceptance testing in the testing plan

C. Ignoring training sessions for end users

D. Implementing the change prior to any end-user interaction

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: For successful end-user acceptance, it’s important to incorporate user acceptance testing. This means allowing end users to work with the new system in a sandbox environment before it’s officially implemented.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 538 in PDF)

154 / 161

What is the correct technique to lift heavy objects, according to the passage?

A. Lift with your back

B. Lift with your legs

C. Use only one hand

D. Lift without any help

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The passage emphasizes to always lift with your legs, not with your back, when handling heavy objects. This is the safer approach to protect against any potential harm or injury to your back.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 563 in PDF)

155 / 161

What is the purpose of end-user termination checklists?

A. To guide the setup of new users

B. To detail the steps, privileges, and rights that must be revoked when an employee ends their employment

C. To list all the assignments, rights, and privileges of existing users

D. To provide troubleshooting steps for user-related issues

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: End-user termination checklists are SOPs that detail the steps, privileges, and rights that must be revoked and deleted when an employee ends their employment with an organization. They are essentially the reverse of new-user setup checklists as they undo the assignments, rights, and privileges of the user.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 528 in PDF)

156 / 161

Which of the following is an appropriate behaviour to avoid distractions when addressing a user’s computer problem?

A. Taking a personal call while interacting with the customer

B. Texting or responding to messages on social media sites

C. Chatting with coworkers

D. Keeping the focus solely on interacting with the customer and problem resolution

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text clearly states that one should keep their attention entirely on the customer and the task at hand i.e. their computer problem, to avoid distractions.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 594 in PDF)

157 / 161

What tasks could the ’Provisioning’ category include in a ticketing system?

A. New user accounts, installs, setups, configurations of new hardware or software, and other routine tasks

B. Failures, errors, or situations end users are unable to resolve themselves

C. Reports of incidents that need further investigation

D. Tickets generated by the support staff

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Provisioning’ category in a ticketing system generally includes tasks such as setting up new user accounts, installing and setting up new hardware or software, and other routine tasks.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 518 in PDF)

158 / 161

What is the difference between a personal use license and an enterprise (corporate) use license?

A. Personal licenses allow the software to be used on multiple computers while corporate licenses limit use to one system.

B. Personal licenses only permit use on one system, while corporate licenses may allow use on personal systems depending on the specific agreement.

C. Corporate licenses cannot be used on personal systems.

D. There is no difference between a personal use license and a corporate use license.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the text, it clearly states that software licensed to an individual (personal use license) is limited to a single computer. However, enterprise licenses (or corporate licenses) may allow individuals to use company-licensed software on their personal systems, depending on the specific license agreement.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 585 in PDF)

159 / 161

What kind of tasks may a typical day as an IT technician involve?

A. Sitting at a desk all day

B. Under a desk dealing with wiring issues

C. Detailing cars

D. Serving food at a restaurant

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: As an IT technician, it is common to find oneself under a desk dealing with wiring issues, as reflected in the text.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 561 in PDF)

160 / 161

What is a key characteristic remote access utilities, methodologies, and tools must have?

A. They must be exclusively in the form of desktop apps.

B. They must be command-line commands.

C. They must not require a logged-in session on another computer.

D. They must be secure.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Remote access utilities, methodologies, and tools must be secure regardless of their form – be it desktop apps or command-line commands. This is especially important considering they are used to connect and run a logged-in session on another remote system, which opens up the possibility of unauthorized access if not secured properly.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 619 in PDF)

161 / 161

Why is it important not to dismiss a customer’s problem in IT support, even if you’ve seen it many times before?

A. Because their problem might be different

B. Because the customer might get annoyed

C. Because you might get bored with the job

D. Because it impacts your promotion

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The idea is that even if an IT professional has seen a similar issue many times before and may think it’s an easy fix, they should still take the customer’s concerns seriously. This is because there can always be variations in the problem and this particular one might be different than the previous ones.

Ref: Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Core 2 Certification Passport (Exam 220-1102)

(Page 595 in PDF)

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