Network+ N10-008 - 1.0 Networking Concepts

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

Network+ N10-008 – 1.0 Networking Concepts

1 / 311

What is the difference between forward and reverse zones used in DNS resolution?

A. Forward zone is used for reverse IP address resolution and Reverse zone is used for all other queries

B. Forward zone is used for all other queries other than reverse queries and Reverse zone is used for reverse IP address resolution

C. Both Forward and Reverse zones are used for reverse IP address resolution

D. Both Forward and Reverse zones are used for DNS client lookups

2 / 311

Which system uses narrower chunks of light wave space to pack as much data into the bandwidth of the glass?

A. Duplex fiber-optic transceiver

B. Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM)

C. Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM)

D. Dark fiber methods

3 / 311

What is the range of IP addresses set aside for multicast addressing?

A. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

B. 200.0.0.0 to 215.255.255.255

C. 190.0.0.0 to 205.255.255.255

D. 244.0.0.0 to 259.255.255.255

4 / 311

What is the Ethernet speed and maximum distance limitation of the 10GBaseT standard?

A. 10 Mbps and 100 meters

B. 1 Gbps and 55 meters

C. 10 Gbps and 100 meters

D. 40 Gbps and 30 meters

5 / 311

What functionality does POP3 provide and which port does it use?

A. It synchronizes clocks between computers over the Internet and listens for requests on UDP port 123

B. It setup and signaling of VoIP calls and operates on UDP port 5060, 5061

C. It is a common network file and printer sharing protocol and waits for connection on TCP port 445

D. It allows email clients to log in and retrieve email and listens for requests on TCP port 110

6 / 311

What is the approximate speed of an OC-1920?

A. 100 Mbps

B. 1 Gbps

C. 10 Gbps

D. 100 Gbps

7 / 311

How does a DHCP server know which scope to serve the remote subnet when an IP helper or DHCP relay agent is used?

A. It uses the MAC address of the client requesting the DHCP address.

B. It uses the GIADDR (Gateway Interface Address) field of the DHCP packet.

C. The DHCP server determines it based on the subnet value.

D. The DHCP server request identifier matches against the IP helper or relay agent identifier.

8 / 311

What is crucial to know about fiber connectors in a fiber-optic installation?

A. Their respective names and visual differences

B. Their color

C. Their weight

D. Their manufacturer

9 / 311

Which disadvantage is associated with Telnet protocol?

A. It cannot perform remote administration of network devices.

B. It has complex text-based console.

C. It lacks encryption compared to SSH protocol.

D. Its server does not wait for connection on TCP port 23.

10 / 311

Which of the following IPv4 addresses is reserved for loopback as per RFC 5735?

A. 10.0.0.0/8

B. 127.0.0.0/8

C. 192.88.99.0/24

D. 172.16.0.0/12

11 / 311

Which of the following are common connection types for Storage Area Networks (SANs)?

A. Ethernet

B. Fibre Channel

C. Wi-Fi

D. FCoE

12 / 311

What can be said about the Very-high-bitrate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL)?

A. It supplies symmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload

B. It has been replaced by ADSL and SDSL

C. It cannot handle data speeds across the same phone lines used to make phone calls

D. It can supply asymmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload

13 / 311

Why should the TIA/EIA 568 wiring standards be followed when terminating the RJ-45 connectors on the ends of a patch cable?

A. To ensure compatibility with wireless standards

B. To follow manufacturer requirements

C. To ensure network cabling doesn’t fail certification and works at the expected speeds

D. To standardize the coloring used in the wiring

14 / 311

In an IP network, what does the subnet mask accomplish?

A. It determines the default gateway

B. It calculates the network for both the source host and destination host

C. It blocks certain IP addresses

D. It specifies the time server

15 / 311

What distinguishes Category 7a cable from Category 7 cable?

A. Category 7a uses normal shielded RJ-45 connectors

B. Category 7a is tested at a higher frequency of 1000 MHz

C. Category 7a is certified for higher speeds than 10 Gbps Ethernet

D. Category 7a was ratified by TIA/EIA as a standard

16 / 311

What is the primary use for the F-connector?

A. Transmit data of up to 2.5 Gbps

B. Network between computers in a business

C. Use for cable TV and cable modem connections

D. Connect RG-6 or RG-59 cabling to fiber optic cables

17 / 311

What does the term ’Service Type’ refer to in the context of network connection?

A. The type of customer the service provider is targeting

B. The type of service offered by the connectivity provider

C. The type of link between the provider and customer

D. Both B and C

18 / 311

What does a Spine-Leaf network architecture restrict in terms of direct connections?

A. The spine switches cannot be directly connected to one another

B. The leaf switches cannot be directly connected to one another

C. Hosts (servers) cannot be directly connected to the spine

D. All of the above

19 / 311

What is a disadvantage of hosting your servers in a public cloud?

A. It requires Amazon Web Services or Azure

B. It becomes a capital expense

C. It requires a monthly reoccurring fee

D. It lacks infrastructure

20 / 311

What is the capability and purpose of the 10GBaseSR standard?

A. It provides 100 Mbps speed over multimode fiber

B. It provides 1 Gbps speed over single-mode fiber

C. It provides 10 Gbps speed over single-mode fiber and used when the distance is long

D. It provides 10 Gbps speed over multimode fiber and is typically used for budget-conscious installs over short distances

21 / 311

What is the purpose of the RJ-11 connector?

A. It is used for Ethernet connections

B. It is used for HDMI connections

C. It is used for telephone connections

D. It is used for VGA connections

22 / 311

Which of the following is considered the most important among DHCP options?

A. Default IP address

B. Router option

C. Name resolution

D. User-specific parameters

23 / 311

What are the responsibilities of the Data Link Layer and its sublayers within a network?

A. The Data Link Layer is responsible for internet browsing and multimedia streaming.

B. The Data Link Layer is only concerned with encryption and decryption of data for secure transmission.

C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for the framing of data, addressing hosts via unique MAC addresses and local delivery of frames. It includes the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer (handles communication with the Network layer and CPU-cycle data processing) and the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer (handles hardware processing of frames, error checking and transmission of data at a physical level).

D. The Data Link Layer exclusively deals with the transmission and reception of WiFi signals.

24 / 311

What does the classless IP address category specify according to the provided text?

A. We adhere to the classful assignment of the IETF and supernetting is not possible.

B. It mandates that we should stick with /16 mask in Class B addressing.

C. It allows subnetting and supernetting due to IPv4 address scarcity and doesn’t stick to classful assignment of the IETF.

D. It doesn’t allow the grouping of multiple /16 networks into a /12 network.

25 / 311

What is the role of EUI-64 in IPv6 addressing?

A. It logically assigns the host’s user ID to the interface ID.

B. It physically assigns the host’s MAC address to the interface ID.

C. It randomly assigns an interface ID and checks for duplication.

D. It pads and inserts the host’s MAC address into the interface ID

26 / 311

What is the maximum distance that 1000BaseSX can achieve over 50-micron fiber-optic cabling?

A. 500 meters

B. 550 meters

C. 600 meters

D. 450 meters

27 / 311

What can you say about 10GBaseLR based on its IEEE definition?

A. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3u and uses multimode fiber

B. It delivers speed of 1 Gbps over single-mode fiber

C. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae and uses single-mode fiber with a maximum distance of 10 kilometers

D. It uses an 850 nm laser and has a maximum distance of 400 meters

28 / 311

What is the purpose of the network interface connection (NIC) at a demarcation point in a telephone system?

A. It serves as a direct connection to the Internet.

B. It segments the internal wiring from the telephone company’s local loop wiring.

C. It allows you to increase the speed of your internet connection.

D. It connects all the devices in your home to a network.

29 / 311

Which statement correctly describes the function of the Authentication Header (AH) protocol in the IPSec protocol suite?

A. AH encrypts the payload using a shared key.

B. AH authenticates the entire packet, not just the ESP data and ESP tail.

C. AH only authenticates the ESP data and ESP tail in the packet.

D. AH adds an additional IP header to protect the original IP header.

30 / 311

What are the characteristics of the core layer in a three-tiered networking model?

A. It refers to the edge switching layer that connects the end user hosts.

B. It is designed for high availability and focuses on routing and switching of the entire network.

C. It is where packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and defining of broadcast domains are performed.

D. It provides local switching and the creation of collision domains.

31 / 311

In Software-defined Networking (SDN), through which interface does the SDN controller communicate with network devices?

A. Northbound Interface (NBI)

B. Southbound Interface (SBI)

C. Hardware Interface

D. Application Interface

32 / 311

What is a concern when using Network Function Virtualization (NFV)?

A. Physical device failures, such as power supplies and CPUs

B. The physical network device failing

C. The host that runs the virtual network functions

D. Redundancy in the hypervisor

33 / 311

Which of the following best describes dark fiber as per the text?

A. It is a managed fiber service similar to Verizon’s FiOS

B. It is a piece of fiber between locations with the customer responsible for lighting and maintaining it

C. It can only be used for WAN connectivity

D. It is typically used for extremely short distance connectivity

34 / 311

Which statement best describes the purpose of unique local addresses in IPv6?

A. These addresses are used for direct communications between two hosts.

B. Unique local addresses are used for internal routing and not intended for Internet routing.

C. These addresses are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity.

D. Unique local addresses are used in lieu of broadcasts in IPv6.

35 / 311

What is the purpose of Ethernet virtual connections (EVCs) in a Metropolitan Ethernet network?

A. To disconnect campus networks

B. To connect campus networks together with layer 2 connectivity

C. To provide a secure wifi connection

D. To reduce the cost of network maintenance

36 / 311

Which Protocol does Puppet use periodically to poll the master server?

A. HTTPS

B. SSH

C. XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS

D. TCP

37 / 311

What does the dot signify at the end of Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) in DNS resolution?

A. It indicates the start of the DNS zone.

B. It signifies the root of all DNS resolution.

C. It points to the registrar.

D. It specifies the Secondary DNS Server.

38 / 311

What does it mean when a transceiver is unidirectional?

A. It can transmit data but cannot receive it

B. It transmits and receives data on a single wavelength

C. It transmits data in both directions simultaneously

D. It only transmits data in one direction on its side of the connection

39 / 311

Which of the following statements about SFTP is true?

A. SFTP operates on TCP port 53

B. SFTP does not use any form of the SSH protocol

C. Command used on many systems for SFTP is scp, which stands for Secure Copy Protocol

D. Cloud providers do not use SFTP for authentication of administrators

40 / 311

What does the term ’service-related entry point’ refer to in a network?

A. The point where the service provider starts their service

B. The location of the customer premises equipment (CPE)

C. The point in a network where the service provider ends their responsibility and it becomes the customer’s

D. The central point in the network where all data is managed

41 / 311

What is the primary function of a 66 block in a telephone system?

A. To supply power to the telephone system

B. To isolate the dial-tone source from the telephone equipment

C. To supply a plain old telephone service (POTS) line access to a business or apartment building

D. To improve the sound quality of the telephone call

42 / 311

Which of the following best describes a declarative approach in Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?

A. It lists all the steps to get to the desired state, like installing Ubuntu 20.04, configuring hostname, installing Apache etc.

B. It relies heavily on the order of installation and if one step errors, the preceding lines need to be debugged.

C. It presents a desired state, like having an Ubuntu server with Apache, PHP, and MySQL installed, and doesn’t concern itself with how that state is reached.

D. It requires manual creation of environments for each developer.

43 / 311

What is the purpose of termination points in a networking context?

A. They function as local storage for data.

B. They act as a diagnostic point or termination of responsibility.

C. They boost the signal strength of the provider.

D. They restrict access to a certain network.

44 / 311

What does TCP provide that UDP does not?

A. Faster data transmission

B. Connectionless data transfer

C. Retransmission of lost data segments

D. Negotiation of the timeout period

45 / 311

Why is a full mesh topology not typically used at the edge of a network where end-user computers connect?

A. Its implementation is less secure.

B. The network would not function if a switch were to go down.

C. It is too costly to implement.

D. It does not provide redundancy in the event of a component failure.

46 / 311

Which of the following best describes the function of the Access Layer in the three-tiered networking model?

A. It provides connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines

B. It performs packet filtering, security policies, and routing between VLANs

C. It connects the end user hosts and supports QoS, Power over Ethernet, and security

D. It performs the functions of both the core layer and distribution layer on the same piece of network switching equipment

47 / 311

What is the primary function of Media Converters in a network?

A. They boost the signal strength of a fibre optic cable

B. They convert copper Ethernet to fibre-optic cable and vice versa

C. They convert multimode fibre to single-mode fibre and vice versa

D. They are used to prevent fibre optic cables from breaking

48 / 311

What is a common setup for enterprise networks in terms of cloud resources allocation?

A. All applications are hosted locally in the company’s private cloud

B. All applications are hosted remotely in the public cloud

C. Most applications should be hosted in the public cloud and occasionally in the private cloud

D. Most enterprise networks are built on a hybrid cloud model

49 / 311

Which of the following methods for assigning IP addresses is supported by both IPv4 and IPv6?

A. Auto-assignment

B. Dynamic assignment

C. Static assignment

D. All of the above

50 / 311

Which of the following correctly describes Cat 8 cabling?

A. It is a recognized standard for 10 Gbps networks at a maximum distance of 100 meters.

B. It is usually used in client-side networking for its economical installation and extended distances.

C. It is an STP cable that can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps and has a maximum distance of 30 meters.

D. It is used by many AV vendors to transmit video because of its high frequency and ability to transmit high data rates.

51 / 311

What is the defined range and default mask for a Class B network?

A. Range of 1 to 126 with a default mask of 255.0.0.0

B. Range of 192 to 223 with a default mask of 255.255.255.0

C. Range of 128 to 191 with a default mask of 255.255.0.0

D. Range of 224 to 239 with no default subnet mask

52 / 311

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding bus networks?

A. A failure on the bus would affect all the computers on the bus

B. Bus networks required external terminators on the ends of the bus segment

C. SCSI disk networks use a device ID similar to how the MAC address is used on computer bus type networks

D. Bus networks are considered the cutting-edge design in networking

53 / 311

What is network address translation (NAT) primarily used for?

A. Translating a network address from English to another language

B. Converting an IP address to a physical address

C. Translating one network address to another

D. Changing a public IP address to a private one internally for routing purposes

54 / 311

What is the main function of a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a T1 service?

A. It converts the channels back into a stream of data.

B. It defines the type of service being ordered.

C. It checks the data for errors and fixes them.

D. It participates in the routing process.

55 / 311

What are the different types of IPv4 address types and components that are also applicable to IPv6?

A. Binary, Octal, Decimal and Hexadecimal

B. Private, Public and Loopback addresses

C. IP addresses, Subnet masks, Broadcast addresses and Gateway

D. Link-Local addresses, Unique Local addresses, Global addresses

56 / 311

What is the role of the NS (Name Server) records in a DNS server?

A. It provides the IP address of the primary and secondary mail servers for a domain.

B. It indicates all the servers that are responsible for a particular zone file.

C. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record.

D. It defines a zone file and tells secondary DNS servers when the zone file has changed.

57 / 311

What are some of the factors that differences between the various categories of network cabling are based on?

A. Number of twists per inch, how the pairs are separated inside the jacket, and the thickness of the conductors

B. Color of cabling, conductivity, and the thickness of the wires

C. Length of network cable, number of twists per inch, and the type of jacket

D. Cable diameter, type of metal used in conductor, and length of cable spool

58 / 311

What is the function of Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) in IPv6 communication?

A. It performs a broadcast for an ARP request and reply

B. It multicasts a Neighbor Solicitation to ff02::1 and receives a Neighbor Advertisement in reply

C. It uses broadcasts to facilitate traffic and eliminate multicast

D. It only manages the neighbor cache, similar to the ARP cache in IPv4

59 / 311

What are the three basic forms of communications a network application can use at the Session layer?

A. Half-duplex, Full-duplex, Multiplex

B. Half-duplex, Simplex, Full-duplex

C. Unidirectional, Duplex, Simplex

D. Bidirectional, Multidirectional, Half-duplex

60 / 311

Which of the following is NOT an advantage provided by the OSI model?

A. It encourages multi-vendor development of hardware and software

B. It allows network protocols and connectivity options to be changed without affecting applications

C. It requires changes in one layer to propagate to all others

D. It divides a complex communications process into smaller pieces to assist with design, troubleshooting, and development

61 / 311

Which of the following is a disadvantage of public cloud hosting?

A. It offers too much control over the hosting environment

B. It requires a capital expense that can be deprecated over several years

C. It involves monthly reoccurring fees

D. It requires a lot of troubleshooting remotely

62 / 311

What is the overall data transfer capacity per operation of a quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP)?

A. 1 Gbps

B. 2 Gbps

C. 3 Gbps

D. 4 Gbps

63 / 311

What does the host do to obtain a routable IPv6 address with Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)?

A. It sends a Router Solicitation (RS) to the multicast address of all routers from the link-local address.

B. It directly requests the router for an address.

C. It uses a 64-bit value to assign the interface ID portion of the IPv6 address.

D. It determines the routable address on its own without any interaction with the router.

64 / 311

What was the hosts file originally used for?

A. For translation of hosts to IP addresses.

B. For registration of domain names with a name authority.

C. As an override to the Domain Name System (DNS).

D. For defining the partition of domain namespace.

65 / 311

Which protocol is not necessarily present at the Network layer in the case of a broadcast frame at the Data Link layer?

A. DHCP

B. ARP

C. IPv4

D. MAC

66 / 311

Which of the following 802.3 standards uses all four pairs of a TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling and has a maximum distance limitation of 100 meters?

A. 10BaseT

B. 100BaseTX

C. 1000BaseT

D. 10GBaseT

67 / 311

What does virtualization enable in terms of server hardware utilization?

A. Decreased partitioning and individualized use of CPU time

B. Increased hardware purchases for each application

C. Storage for an infinite number of applications on one server

D. Partitioning of server hardware to allow multiple applications to run simultaneously

68 / 311

Which of the following is NOT a consideration for infrastructure implementation in wide area networks (WAN)?

A. Placement of resources within various networks

B. The protocols used by the internal networks

C. The use of broadcast-based technologies

D. The color of the network cables

69 / 311

What are some of the functions of the Presentation layer (layer 6) ?

A. Responsible for physical connections between devices

B. Handles encryption/decryption, translation, and compression/decompression of data

C. Manages data packet forwarding

D. Ensures reliable end-to-end communications

70 / 311

What is the standard of Ethernet known as 10GBaseT is defined by and what are its specifications?

A. IEEE 802.3bq, Ethernet speed of 40 Gbps, uses Category 8 STP cable

B. IEEE 802.3i, Ethernet speed of 10 Mbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 3 cable

C. IEEE 802.3an, Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cable

D. IEEE 802.3u, Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 5 cable

71 / 311

What is the purpose of a 110 block in the context of analog wiring of telephone equipment?

A. It connects directly to the internet service provider.

B. It enables wireless communication between devices.

C. It facilitates cross-connect between the PBX and the phone equipment.

D. It monitors and controls the power supply to the phone equipment.

72 / 311

What is a dual-stack router or host in networking?

A. A router that runs only IPv4 network stack.

B. A host that uses only IPv6 network stack.

C. A host or router that runs both IPv4 and IPv6 network stacks simultaneously.

D. A router or host that can only communicate on one version of the IP protocol at a time.

73 / 311

What is the primary benefit of Desktop as a Service (DaaS) in terms of security?

A. It allows for data processing in the cloud

B. It reduces the risk of physical theft of the edge device

C. It increases the speed of the connection

D. It enables the use of multiple operating systems

74 / 311

What does the ’On-Demand Self-Service’ characteristic of cloud computing as defined by NIST entail?

A. The capabilities are accessible over a network and are not a contrived system.

B. Computer capabilities can be elastically provisioned based on the customer’s requirements.

C. A customer can provision computer capabilities and resources without any human interaction.

D. The intent is to time-share a pool of resources over many several virtual instances.

75 / 311

What distinguishes a Krone block panel from a 110 block panel?

A. Krone block panel is predominantly used in the United States while 110 block panel is used in the United Kingdom

B. Krone block panel has smaller punchdown spades

C. The punchdown spades on Krone block are larger and require a specific Krone punchdown tool

D. A 110 block punchdown tool can be used on a Krone block panel

76 / 311

What is the difference between IPSec’s Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)?

A. AH performs encryption while ESP assures data has not been altered.

B. ESP performs encryption while AH assures data has not been altered.

C. AH operates on transport mode while ESP operates on tunnel mode.

D. ESP operates on transport mode while AH operates on tunnel mode.

77 / 311

What are the four main functionalities of the H.323 protocol?

A. Terminal control, signal transmission, gateway services, and troubleshooting

B. Terminal control, gateway services, gatekeeper services, and multipoint control unit

C. Terminal control, packet-switching, gateway services, and gatekeeper services

D. Terminal control, gateway services, server maintenance, and multipoint control unit

78 / 311

What best explains the Anycast IP address type?

A. It is type of IP address that serves the farthest host logically

B. It is a unique IP address assigned to a single host

C. It enables multiple hosts to share the same IP address to serve the nearest client

D. It is an IP address that is mapped to hundreds of servers globally, without specific route statements

79 / 311

What is the main function of the Distribution Layer in the three-tiered networking model?

A. It provides local switching and the creation of collision domains.

B. It is where the connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines is found.

C. It connects the end user hosts.

D. It allows for connectivity to multiple access layer switches and performs function like packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and defining of broadcast domains.

80 / 311

What is a significant difference between a virtual firewall kernel module and a virtual firewall appliance?

A. Only virtual firewall appliances can apply policies to all hosts in a cluster

B. Traffic never leaves the host when a virtual firewall appliance is used

C. Virtual firewall kernel modules use policies to apply to all hosts in a cluster

D. Only virtual firewall appliances can be configured for Layer 2 MAC addresses or protocol with traditional Layer 3 and Layer 4 rules

81 / 311

What is the functionality of HTTP and on which TCP port does it operate?

A. HTTP is used for remote administration and operates on TCP port 3389

B. HTTP is an application protocol for web data communication and operates on TCP port 80

C. HTTP is used for the encryption of transfers via Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and operates on TCP port 443

D. HTTP is a protocol used for the management of servers and network devices and operates on UDP port 161

82 / 311

What defines a Class C network ID, its range and default subnet mask?

A. First octet range of 192 to 223, default mask of 255.255.255.0

B. First octet range of 1 to 126, default mask of 255.0.0.0

C. First octet range of 128 to 191, default mask of 255.255.0.0

D. First octet range of 224 to 239, no default subnet mask

83 / 311

What does it mean when the Router Advertisement (RA) message in Stateless DHCPv6 has the O flag set to 1?

A. It indicates that the DHCPv6 operates like an IPv4 DHCP server

B. It represents ’managed address configuration’

C. It implies ’other stateful configuration’

D. It marks that the DHCPv6 assigns IPv6 network addresses

84 / 311

Which specification is used on one end when creating a crossover cable?

A. TIA/EIA 670A

B. TIA/EIA 568A

C. TIA/EIA 568B

D. TIA/EIA 674B

85 / 311

What is the main function of Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)?

A. It is used to encrypt data during transport.

B. It is used to boot computers over the network with the Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and also transfer software images for network devices.

C. It is used for remote administration of network devices through a text-based console.

D. It is used to provide automatic configuration of IP addresses, subnet masks, and options such as Domain Name System (DNS) servers and the remote gateway to network devices.

86 / 311

Which of the following is the major difference between InfiniBand and Fibre Channel?

A. InfiniBand does not require any switched fabric

B. Fibre Channel is used as a SAN connectivity type

C. InfiniBand is designed to be an extremely low-latency, high-throughput, and lossless connection

D. Very few companies produce the high-end switching equipment needed for InfiniBand

87 / 311

What is the primary configuration language of Chef, and how does it perform installations?

A. Python, with a push method from a master server

B. Ruby DSL, with a pull method from a master server using the SSH protocol

C. Ruby DSL, with push commands sequentially to destination servers

D. Puppet DSL and ERB templates, with the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS

88 / 311

Which of the following correctly describes the range of private IP addresses for small networks as per RFC 1918?

A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

D. 254.254.0.0 to 254.254.255.255

89 / 311

In the context of orchestration software, what does Ansible do?

A. It uses a pull method of installation from a master server with the SSH protocol.

B. It was created as a replacement for Chef and Puppet and allows for a hybrid approach to orchestration.

C. It is a client-server architecture and its configuration is performed with a Ruby domain-specific language.

D. Agents periodically poll the master server with the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS.

90 / 311

What is the standard color of SMF patch cables based on the provided text?

A. Blue

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. Green

91 / 311

In a data center, what type of traffic pattern should be avoided if possible?

A. East to West

B. North to South

C. Across VLANs

D. Within the same VLAN

92 / 311

Why are leased-lines still covered in the Network+ exam despite being an older technology?

A. Because they are interesting for historical purposes

B. Because they still serve a purpose and newer technologies like MPLS can be overlaid on them

C. Because they are less expensive than newer technologies

D. Because they are required for certain types of network architectures

93 / 311

Which tunneling technology is used when an IPv6 host is behind a network address translation (NAT)?

A. 6to4

B. Toredo

C. ISATAP

D. MPLS

94 / 311

What is the primary purpose of HTTPS and Transport Layer Security (TLS)?

A. Encrypting data transfers via Secure Sockets Layer.

B. Connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration.

C. Collecting data from servers and network devices.

D. Making requests for HTML pages on a web server.

95 / 311

What is the primary function of H.323 protocol?

A. It provides admission control and bandwidth control

B. It functions as a syslog server

C. It is used for communication over the Internet, specifically VoIP and videoconferencing

D. It enables communication between Oracle databases

96 / 311

What is the purpose of a DHCP scope in network management?

A. It is a manual process to assign IP addresses to specific MAC addresses.

B. It denotes a range of IP addresses that are excluded from distribution.

C. It is a logical grouping of consecutive IP addresses that a DHCP server can serve out to clients.

D. It is the process of assigning IP addresses dynamically through the DHCP service.

97 / 311

Which of the following statements about SNMP is correct?

A. SNMP only operates on TCP

B. SNMP monitors servers and network devices using HTTP

C. The NMS is notified of problems through SNMP traps sent to UDP port 161

D. SNMP agents and servers listen for requests on UDP port 161

98 / 311

Which factor determines the selection of either copper or fiber-optic cabling in a network design?

A. The price of the cabling

B. The complexity of the network design

C. The presence of electromagnetic interference

D. The personal preference of the network professional

99 / 311

Where should crossover cables be used?

A. Connecting switches to routers

B. Connecting switches to switches

C. Connecting computers to modems

D. Connecting routers to modems

100 / 311

What is a key characteristic of a metropolitan area network (MAN)?

A. It covers a larger geographical area than a WAN

B. It is slower than a WAN

C. It offers higher connection speeds between network locations

D. It requires administrators to be at each location

101 / 311

What is one use of the coaxial cable today?

A. In ethernet communications on the local area network

B. Between servers and switching equipment

C. For security cameras and broadband cable networks

D. To power home electrical systems

102 / 311

What is the range of frequencies on which WiMAX operates?

A. 1 GHz to 10 GHz

B. 10 GHz to 66 GHz

C. 2 GHz to 11 GHz and 10 GHz to 66 GHz

D. 1 GHz to 99 GHz

103 / 311

Which of the following facts align with the definition of 1000BaseLX standard?

A. It is capable of an Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps over 9-micron single-mode fiber.

B. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae.

C. It utilizes a 1300 nm laser over 9-micron single-mode fiber and can reach distances up to 10 kilometers.

D. It is known as ’short range’ because it has a maximum distance of 550 meters.

104 / 311

What does Resource Pooling refer to in the context of cloud computing according to the NIST?

A. The capability of a cloud service to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, and accounts

B. The provision of computer capabilities and resources, such as CPU, memory, storage, the network, instance of a virtual machine, or any other component of the service, without any human interaction

C. The allocation and time-sharing of a pool of resources over multiple virtual instances

D. The elastic provisioning of computer capabilities based on customer’s requirements, such as load

105 / 311

What is the function of the control layer in the software-defined network model?

A. It is the interface between the application layer and the SDN controller.

B. It is where the network hardware is located.

C. It provides management for the control and flow of data.

D. It is controlled by the SDN controller and manages networking hardware, protocols, and the flow of data.

106 / 311

What is the primary function of the Southbound Interface (SBI) in a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) setup?

A. Allows applications and APIs access to the SDN controller’s logic to monitor and manage network devices

B. It enables management of all devices for the control and flow of data

C. It is utilized by the SDN controller to communicate with the network hardware

D. It provides programmability elements in the form of applications or APIs

107 / 311

What is the function of a hypervisor in a virtual environment?

A. To share the host hardware among the virtual machines (VMs) and manage the VMs’ operations

B. To monitor the usage of network bandwidth by each guest OS within the VMs

C. To prevent guest operating systems from interacting with the host machine

D. To execute automated scripts for storing data across VMs

108 / 311

Which of the following best describes how an IPv6 address differs from an IPv4 address?

A. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long.

B. No binary math is involved with subnetting in an IPv6 address.

C. IPv6 addresses are easier to notate than IPv4 addresses.

D. There are fewer network and host addresses in IPv6.

109 / 311

What are the primary purposes of cable management in network installation?

A. To impress clients and reduce cost

B. To allow for easy changes and remove weight from cable ends

C. To prevent theft and organize cables

D. To look organized and take the weight off the cable ends

110 / 311

Which type of encryption should be utilized to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks, prevent data interception, and ensure identity theft protection when data is transmitted to or from the public cloud?

A. One-way encryption

B. Asymmetric encryption

C. Symmetric encryption

D. None, encryption is not necessary

111 / 311

Which feature of the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) contributes to its popularity over the Post Office Protocol (POP)?

A. IMAP operates on TCP port 143

B. IMAP allows multiple email clients to access the same email box simultaneously

C. IMAP transmits information in clear text

D. IMAP operates over SSL on TCP port 993

112 / 311

What does APIPA not auto-assign when allocating IP addresses?

A. DNS server

B. Subnet mask

C. Default gateway

D. Physical address

113 / 311

What is associated with each protocol in supporting network communications, administering networking components, configuring, and troubleshooting networking components?

A. The operating system it is used on

B. The bandwidth usage

C. A Transport layer protocol it operates in and its listening port number

D. The type of cable it operates with

114 / 311

Which of the following is a characteristic of a virtual NIC?

A. It is a physical piece of hardware installed in the VM

B. It requires the VMware drivers due to its generic hardware status

C. It is a software that emulates physical hardware

D. It bypasses communication with the VM’s virtual switch

115 / 311

Why might heavily regulated industries struggle to use the public cloud model?

A. It is too expensive

B. There can be restrictions on where data can be stored and who can access it

C. The public cloud model does not provide enough resources

D. The public cloud model does not allow renting or leasing of compute time

116 / 311

What regional Internet registry (RIR) is responsible for assigning IPv4 address blocks to private companies in Africa?

A. ARIN

B. AFRINIC

C. APNIC

D. RIPE NCC

117 / 311

Which statement accurately describes the 1000BaseT standard?

A. It is defined by the IEEE as 802.3u

B. It uses TIA/EIA Category 3 or higher cabling

C. It can achieve an Ethernet speed of 40 Gbps

D. It uses all four pairs in the cabling

118 / 311

What does a stratum 16 in NTP indicate?

A. It is the highest precision clock

B. The host system’s clock is not synchronized

C. The host system derives its clock from a stratum 15

D. The host system uses an atomic rubidium clock

119 / 311

What is the role of the ARIN as related to IP address assignments?

A. ARIN assigns private blocks of IP addresses to private companies

B. ARIN is responsible for the general management of IP addresses

C. ARIN assigns IP address to ISPs in Canada, the United States, and some Caribbean Islands

D. ARIN no longer assigns IPv4 addresses due to shortage

120 / 311

Which of the following is a common implementation of ISDN?

A. Local Area Network (LAN)

B. Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D. Fiber Optic Service (FOS)

121 / 311

Which of the following is a disadvantage of public cloud hosting?

A. High initial cost

B. Lack of control over hosting

C. There are no disadvantages

D. Monthly reoccurring fee

122 / 311

What is the role of a host bus adapter (HBA) card in a storage area network (SAN)?

A. It separates the SAN from the LAN

B. It is used to partition devices to a LUN in Fibre Channel

C. It coordinates the storage of information directly to the volume on the SAN

D. It is used to perform security in the initiator and target as part of the iSCSI protocol

123 / 311

What is one of the primary benefits of using orchestration software?

A. It can only be utilized by skilled developers.

B. It enables developers to pay for computer time by the hour.

C. It allows developers to spin up and down servers on demand.

D. It requires a dedicated server to run.

124 / 311

What does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in the IPSec protocol suite do?

A. ESP assures that data has not been altered in transit

B. ESP encrypts the payload using either a shared key or a private and public keypair

C. ESP creates private tunnels that are impervious to eavesdropping or tampering

D. ESP operates in either transport mode or tunnel mode

125 / 311

Why is RG-6 preferred over RG-59 for new coaxial cable installations?

A. RG-6 is cheaper than RG-59

B. RG-6 is thinner than RG-59

C. RG-6 has a larger inner core, insulator, and better shielding than RG-59

D. RG-59 is not readily available in the market

126 / 311

Which of the following statements about a LAN is incorrect based on the provided text?

A. A LAN denotes the company’s internal network

B. No consideration is needed for the placement of resources within the LAN

C. LAN speeds are usually the fastest within your network design

D. When there is a resource local to the clients, it is considered an intranet

127 / 311

What is a significant difference between a virtual switch and a physical switch?

A. A virtual switch does not perform the same functions as a physical switch

B. The number of ports on a virtual switch is fixed like a physical switch

C. A virtual switch is not scalable

D. A virtual switch can simply add more ports unlike a physical switch

128 / 311

What is the maximum theoretical speed of Dial-up with the V.92 specification?

A. 56 Kbps

B. 53 Kbps

C. 100 Kbps

D. 65 Kbps

129 / 311

Why is it important to have a good working knowledge of virtualized networking components?

A. Because virtualization is a temporary trend

B. Because the physical infrastructure is becoming obsolete

C. Because virtualization is here to stay and is growing rapidly

D. Because virtualized networking components replace the need for physical components

130 / 311

What is the data transfer speed of a single QSFP+ transceiver?

A. 10 Gbps

B. 25 Gbps

C. 40 Gbps

D. 100 Gbps

131 / 311

What are anycast addresses used for in IPv6?

A. One-to-many connectivity

B. One-to-nearest connectivity

C. All-to-one connectivity

D. Many-to-one connectivity

132 / 311

What is an important requirement for using POP3 over SSL?

A. The email client must support POP3 over SSL.

B. IMAP must be disabled on the email server.

C. An SSL certificate must be installed in Active Directory.

D. LDAP must be configured on the email client.

133 / 311

What does the priority in an MX record indicate for a sending server?

A. The order in which mail servers are checked for updates

B. The quota for incoming mails

C. The order in which mail servers are contacted to send mail

D. The volume of mail that can be handled by the server

134 / 311

What is the maximum distance that Category 6 cable can cover for a 1 Gbps network?

A. 100 meters

B. 55 meters

C. 33 meters

D. 25 meters

135 / 311

What is the significant difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

A. TCP and UDP are applied by the developer differently.

B. TCP establishes a connection with a three-way handshake, while UDP does not.

C. UDP is responsible for the retransmission of missing segments of data.

D. Only TCP is used to connect network applications to the network.

136 / 311

What are the typical speeds of iSCSI?

A. 500 Mbps to 20 Gbps

B. 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps

C. 2 Mbps to 10 Gbps

D. 100 Mbps to 15 Gbps

137 / 311

What is the RJ-45 commonly used for?

A. Connecting audio devices

B. Connecting network equipment

C. Powering desktop computers

D. Transferring data over Bluetooth

138 / 311

What is unique about the Network Time Protocol’s (NTP) use of UDP port 123?

A. Port 123 is used only for time requests

B. Port 123 is used both for request and reply of NTP packets; a symmetrical port

C. Port 123 in NTP communicates with VoIP phones

D. Port 123 is used only for reply packets of NTP

139 / 311

Which type of lookup primarily uses the Domain Name System (DNS)?

A. Translating Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) to internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

B. Translating fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses

C. Secure Shell (SSH) to Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) translation

D. Translating Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) servers to SMTP

140 / 311

What is the purpose of SSH and what port number does it use?

A. SSH is used to securely log in to servers and uses TCP port 25

B. SSH is used to securely log in to servers and uses TCP port 22

C. SSH is used for delivering emails and uses TCP port 22

D. SSH is used for file transfer and uses TCP port 22

141 / 311

What is the primary function of Port Address Translation (PAT)?

A. It creates a one-to-one mapping from private to public IP addresses.

B. It creates many-to-one mapping from private to public IP addresses.

C. It translates the inside local port number to a different outside global port number.

D. It directly maps the inside local port number to the same inside global port number.

142 / 311

What is the role of Server Message Blocks (SMBs) in a Network Attached Storage (NAS) system?

A. Facilitates user authentication for the NAS system

B. Responsible for performing commands against a file structure

C. Provides backup and replication services for the NAS system

D. Ensures high-speed connectivity between the NAS and client devices

143 / 311

What is the standard, speed, cabling requirement and distance limitation of 100BaseTX in the IEEE 802.3 specifications?

A. IEEE 802.3ab, Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps, TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling, maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet)

B. IEEE 802.3u, Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, TIA/EIA Category 5 or higher cabling, maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet)

C. IEEE 802.3i, Ethernet speed of 10 Mbps, TIA/EIA Category 3 or higher cabling, maximum distance of 100 meters (330 feet)

D. IEEE 802.3an, Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cabling, maximum distance of 55 meters or 100 meters with Category 6a cable

144 / 311

What is the role of Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)?

A. It is used to remotely administer Linux servers

B. It is used by mail transfer agents (MTAs) to deliver emails to a destination email server

C. It is used in translating fully qualified domain names to IP addresses

D. It is used for client access on the email server

145 / 311

What is a key difference between Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) and Static NAT?

A. DNAT does not require as many IP addresses on the inside global side.

B. DNAT does not use a one-to-one mapping of IP addresses.

C. DNAT dynamically maps an IP address from a pool to the inside local IP address.

D. DNAT does not add entries to the table.

146 / 311

What is a characteristic of a strict client-server network operating system, such as Novell Netware?

A. Servers can also act as clients

B. Clients can serve up files and printers

C. Multiple ports need to be opened on client side to egress the network

D. Servers are exclusive providers of resources, such as files or printers, and clients only use these resources

147 / 311

What is the total bandwidth of an E3 connection?

A. 2.048 Mbps

B. 34.368 Mbps

C. 64 Kbps

D. 16 Mbps

148 / 311

What would be a suitable description for TCP?

A. It is a support protocol for TCP/IP that operates alongside of the IP protocol on the Network layer.

B. It is a transport protocol for TCP/IP, connectionless, non-sequenced, and non-acknowledged.

C. It is a transport protocol for TCP/IP, connection-oriented, sequenced, and acknowledged.

D. It is responsible for the discovery of the network gateway(s) with ICMP Router Solicitation (RS) and Router Advertisement (RA) packets so that hosts can find a way out of the network.

149 / 311

According to RFC 1918, which private IPv4 address space is reserved for large networks?

A. 10.0.0.0/8

B. 172.16.0.0/12

C. 192.168.0.0/16

D. 20.0.0.0/8

150 / 311

Which two protocols are used for creating highly available default gateways using a Virtual IP (VIP) and virtual MAC address?

A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)

C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) and Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)

D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

151 / 311

What are some characteristics of a Category 7 cable?

A. It’s recognized as a standard by TIA/EIA

B. It allows for 10 Gbps network speeds at distances up to 100 meters

C. It requires typical RJ-45 connectors

D. It is commonly used for installations due to its affordability

152 / 311

Which of the following statements best describes the function and use of the hosts file?

A. It is a dynamic file used for translation of hosts to IP addresses.

B. It is a static file used for translation of hosts to IP addresses and operates as an override to DNS.

C. It is the primary method of resolving fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses on modern networks.

D. It is a deprecated file used in the early days of the internet, but it is no longer in use today.

153 / 311

What is one of the disadvantages of Twinax cabling as mentioned in the text?

A. It has lower speeds compared to fiber-optic cabling

B. The transceivers are not part of the cable

C. The cable is more fragile than fiber-optic cabling

D. The cable comes in a fixed length so it can’t be cut to fit

154 / 311

Which type of copper cabling is commonly used in industrial settings where electromagnetic interference (EMI) can induce erroneous data into the cable?

A. Coaxial cable

B. Fiber-optic cable

C. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)

D. Shielded twisted-pair (STP)

155 / 311

Which function does ICMP perform in IPv6 that it does not perform in IPv4?

A. It removes the need for UDP

B. It is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)

C. It operates at layer 4 of the OSI

D. It replaces TCP

156 / 311

Which interface does the SDN controller use to communicate with applications and APIs?

A. Southbound Interface (SBI)

B. Northbound Interface (NBI)

C. Management Plane

D. Control Layer

157 / 311

What does the Start of Authority (SOA) record in a DNS zone do?

A. It processes all DNS queries.

B. It keeps records up-to-date on the secondary DNS servers.

C. It relates to the management of IP addresses.

D. It defines the relationships between primary and secondary DNS servers.

158 / 311

What is the role of the Internet Protocol (IP) in data transmission?

A. The IP protocol handles the creating and managing of applications.

B. The IP protocol is responsible for assigning priorities to data packets.

C. The IP protocol is responsible for encapsulating protocols such as UDP, TCP, and delivering the data to the appropriate addresses.

D. The IP protocol converts analog signals to digital signals.

159 / 311

Which of the following describes the function of link-local addresses in IPv6 (fe80::/10)?

A. They are used for external Internet routing

B. They assign the first 24 bits to determine the registry, ISP and company

C. They function similar to private IP addresses in IPv4

D. They are used for local access on a network and are unrouteable

160 / 311

How can IPv6 addresses be shortened?

A. Removing the leading zeros between the colons

B. Removing the colons completely

C. Adding zeros between the double colons

D. Replacing numbers with letters

161 / 311

What does elasticity refer to in the context of cloud computing, as per NIST publication SP 800-145?

A. Ability to suffer data loss without affecting the user’s experience

B. Ability to scale computing resources as required, without requiring human interaction with the service provider

C. Hardware troubleshooting by the cloud provider

D. Ensuring optimal security measures in cloud-based platforms

162 / 311

What is the primary use of Punchdown Blocks in networking?

A. They are primarily used with Voice over IP (VoIP) systems.

B. They are almost always used with analog or digital time division multiplexing (TDM) phone installations.

C. They are most commonly used with Power over Ethernet (PoE) systems.

D. They are used to connect to the network’s firewall.

163 / 311

What is the maximum number of separate channels that can be multiplexed together using Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM)?

A. 8 channels

B. 18 channels

C. 28 channels

D. 80 channels

164 / 311

In what context is the BIX punch block panel predominantly found and used?

A. In Cisco router installations

B. In VoIP-based communication systems

C. In Nortel phone switch installations

D. In Wi-Fi access point installations

165 / 311

What is the role of the northbound interface (NBI) in a software-defined network (SDN)?

A. It allows the SDN controller to communicate with network hardware.

B. It is responsible for data management in the network.

C. It is the interface between the application layer and the control layer, allowing applications and APIs to monitor and manage network devices.

D. It is used by administrators to create policies and program the SDN controller.

166 / 311

Which communication technology encompasses all of the technologies used by VoIP and videoconferencing, and performs call setup on TCP port 1720?

A. H.323

B. MySQL

C. SQLnet

D. Syslog

167 / 311

What function does port forwarding perform behind a NAT?

A. It restricts internal hosts from using services offered by external hosts.

B. It enables external hosts to contact services on an internal host in the network.

C. It allows all incoming traffic from the public interface to the internal network without a static entry mapping.

D. It blocks any connection made to the outside IP address.

168 / 311

What is the definition of Software as a Service (SaaS) in the context of cloud computing?

A. It is a model of cloud computing that allows customers to generate code on the provider’s platform

B. It is an application owned and maintained by the user

C. It is any application that you use but do not own or maintain, provided and maintained by the service provider on its cloud

D. It is a model of cloud computing that provides storage like SQL

169 / 311

What are the three methods that an internet provider may use to hand off service?

A. Satellite, fiber optic, wireless

B. Copper, fiber optic, wireless

C. Copper, undersea fiber, wireless

D. Fiber optic, DSL, wireless

170 / 311

What is the classification of Cat 5 cable in terms of network speeds?

A. 1 Gbps

B. 10 Mbps

C. 100 Mbps

D. 10 Gbps

171 / 311

What is the purpose of a Router Solicitation (RS) request in an IPv6 network?

A. To request an IP address for a new host

B. To communicate the host’s IP address to the network

C. To solicit a Router Advertisement (RA) from the network routers

D. To configure a host ID dynamically

172 / 311

What feature of the Standard Connector (SC) allows the transmit and receive cables to be swapped?

A. Its square shape

B. Its plastic clip

C. Its floating ferrule

D. Its push-on/pull-off mating mechanism

173 / 311

What is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)?

A. On-demand self-service

B. Resource pooling

C. Rapid elasticity

D. Limited network access

174 / 311

Which of the following statements best describes copper cabling’s use in networking?

A. It is mainly used for leased lines, broadband cable, DSL, and dial-up.

B. It is most effective when the network equipment is more than 100 meters away from the provider’s termination point.

C. Metropolitan Ethernet services can only be acquired as a fiber handoff from the provider.

D. Fiber handoffs from the provider are rare due to the limited speed and distance of fiber.

175 / 311

What is the primary function of the Physical layer in a network?

A. Encoding data for transmission via wireless methods only

B. Connecting directly with applications over Ethernet or wireless connections

C. Transmitting the data of 1s and 0s that is passed down from the Data Link layer

D. Identifying problems such as bad connection or loose connection only

176 / 311

What does APNIC manage in the Asia/Pacific region?

A. Private IPv4 addresses

B. Public IPv4 addresses

C. Both private and public IPv4 addresses

D. None of the above

177 / 311

Which of the following is a common SAN (Storage Area Network) technology found in data centers?

A. Ethernet

B. Fibre Channel

C. Wi-Fi

D. Bluetooth

178 / 311

What is the role of LACNIC in the context of IP addresses?

A. It assigns private IPv4 addresses to internal networks

B. It manages and assigns IP addresses to ISPs in Latin America and some Caribbean Islands

C. It is the only body responsible for the assignment of IPv4 addresses in the Latin America Region

D. It directly assigns IPv4 addresses to end users

179 / 311

Which of the following describes the class of an IP address that has a default mask of 255.0.0.0 and a range of 1 to 126 for the first octet?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

180 / 311

What standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3i?

A. 1000BaseT

B. 10BaseT

C. 100BaseTX

D. 10GBaseT

181 / 311

What is the main difference between the Three-tiered networking model and the Collapsed-core model?

A. The Three-tiered model is more modern

B. The Collapsed-core model supports only the access layer

C. The Collapsed-core model merges the core and distribution layer onto the same piece of switching equipment

D. The Three-tiered model is used specifically for small to mid-sized network designs

182 / 311

Which of the following best describes the function of a Smart Jack?

A. It is used to replace the router.

B. It converts protocols and framing types from the provider’s network.

C. It serves as a diagnostic point for the customer.

D. It monitors the performance of internet service and informs the customer.

183 / 311

What is the purpose of the DHCP service?

A. To calculate network load balancing

B. To assign an IPv4 address to clients dynamically as they join the network

C. To provide fault tolerance for the network

D. To serve as the main interface for network management

184 / 311

What is one main reason to avoid using Cat 3 cabling in modern network installations?

A. Cat 3 cabling is not voice-grade cable

B. Cat 3 cabling is more expensive than Cat 5e cabling

C. Cat 3 cabling can only support networks up to 10 Mbps

D. Cat 3 cabling requires special connectors that are not commonly available

185 / 311

What is the difference between a physical and a logical topology in a network?

A. A physical network shows the flow of information while a logical network shows how the devices are physically interconnected

B. A logical network shows the flow of information while a physical network shows how the devices are physically interconnected

C. A logical network shows the real-time data traffic in the network while a physical network shows the data storage layout

D. A logical network shows how devices are interconnected via wireless signals while a physical network shows the wired connections among devices

186 / 311

What is a DSLAM in the context of a DSL network?

A. A special filter for preventing voice calls from interrupting data communications

B. A component of the POTS system that limits frequencies above 3400 hertz

C. A piece of equipment at the central office that communicates with a premise’s modem

D. A particular type of modem specific to DSL connections

187 / 311

Which types of DNS record would need to be updated if the IP address of a host that has multiple names changes?

A. CNAME records

B. A records

C. MX records

D. NS records

188 / 311

In what situation is the use of Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cable most recommended?

A. When cabling near large motors, welding equipment, HVAC equipment, high-voltage lighting

B. When the cabling is least expensive

C. When electromagnetic interference (EMI) is not a concern

D. When the Ethernet jack shielding and RJ-45 shielding are not required

189 / 311

What are the two main types of cable connectors used in network cabling?

A. Copper and Iron

B. Fiber-optic and Plastic

C. Copper and Fiber-optic

D. Iron and Fiber-optic

190 / 311

What does the Token Ring technology utilize in its functioning?

A. Each device sends messages simultaneously

B. The devices pass a token around the ring, and the device which seizes the token transmits a message

C. Messages are sent randomly by each device

D. Only one device can transmit messages

191 / 311

What are Fiber Channel Worldwide Names (WWNs) likened to?

A. IP address

B. MAC address

C. Usernames

D. DNS

192 / 311

What is the primary function of a subnet mask in network communications?

A. It provides routing out of the immediate network

B. It calculates the immediate network the host belongs to by pairing with the host’s IP address

C. It is used in Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

D. It acts as a gateway of last resort in the routing table

193 / 311

Which of the following best describes the concept of scalability in the context of network resources?

A. Increasing resources dynamically to meet current demand

B. Deciding to place a web server across multiple data centers

C. Decreasing virtual CPU when the load has subsided

D. Ensuring the application is written to be optimized for scalability

194 / 311

What are some of the advantages of the Star topology?

A. The computers have to be next to each other

B. All network devices are wired back to a single computer

C. Failure and diagnostic points are spread out across the network

D. It concentrates the failure and diagnostic points in a central location

195 / 311

In which situation is it recommended to use static IP addressing?

A. When configuring client computers on a large network

B. On network resources such as routers, network printers, and servers

C. When the IP address space needs to be centrally managed

D. When using IPv4 configuration on Windows 95

196 / 311

What does IMAP over SSL do and which port does it operate on?

A. Encrypts POP3 traffic and operates on TCP port 995.

B. Encrypts IMAP traffic and operates on TCP port 993.

C. Encrypts LDAP traffic and operates on TCP port 636.

D. Enables multi-email client access on TCP port 143.

197 / 311

What is the key consideration for placing resources in Campus Area Network (CAN)?

A. Closest to the router

B. Closest to the perimeter firewalls

C. Closest to the majority of users

D. Beside the network server

198 / 311

What is the role of a Channel Service Unit / Digital Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a network?

A. To store data packets for later transmission

B. To convert serialized data to a compatible serial protocol for routers

C. To amplify the signal strength of the data packets

D. To act as a firewall and filter data packets

199 / 311

What is the defined range and default subnet mask for Class A network IDs?

A. Range: 1 to 126, Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0

B. Range: 128 to 191, Subnet Mask: 255.255.0.0

C. Range: 1 to 126, Subnet Mask: 255.0.0.0

D. Range: 192 to 223, Subnet Mask: 255.255.0.0

200 / 311

Why is a fiber-optic cable used instead of a conventional copper cable in certain situations?

A. Fiber-optic cable provides stronger RF emissions.

B. Fiber-optic cable can transmit high data rates over longer distances and is not affected by high EMI.

C. Fiber-optic cable has a cheaper manufacturing cost.

D. Fiber-optic cable can function without cladding.

201 / 311

Which of the following IEEE standards is defined as a ’short haul,’ providing Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps but with shorter distance coverage using an LED-based source?

A. 100BaseFX

B. 100BaseSX

C. 1000BaseSX

D. 10GBaseSR

202 / 311

What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC) and how it is related to DevOps?

A. IaC is a manual way of handling network operations and it is not related to DevOps.

B. IaC is a term used to describe the ability of developers to provision infrastructure and become an integral part of IT, giving rise to the term DevOps.

C. IaC is a simplified process of bug testing by developers and it has a direct link with DevOps.

D. IaC is a process involving ticket submission by developers to network operations for managing infrastructure, leading to DevOps.

203 / 311

Which of the following is NOT considered a network application?

A. Edge

B. Internet Explorer

C. Microsoft Word

D. VoIP calls

204 / 311

Which type of storage is a cross between a SAN and direct attached storage (DAS), and where the hypervisor is responsible for the storage?

A. Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B. Hyperconverged Storage

C. Storage Area Networks (SANs)

D. Independent Disk Storage

205 / 311

What issue could arise with the quality of service when using a VPN to access applications in a public cloud?

A. The VPN does not allow for any kind of encryption

B. Applications that are prone to latency might run poorly

C. The VPN reduces the overall data bandwidth

D. The VPN prevents direct access to the cloud provider

206 / 311

What function does a forwarding/caching DNS server primarily serve?

A. It hosts multiple zones.

B. It queries root servers for top-level domain names.

C. It forwards DNS requests to another server and caches the answers.

D. It acts as a DNS resolver within the operating system.

207 / 311

What does BNC in BNC connector stand for and for what purposes are these connectors used?

A. Bayonet Neill-Concelman, used for 100BaseT LAN coaxial networks and security camera systems

B. Bayesian Network Connector, used for T3 WAN connections and radio equipment

C. British Naval Connector, used for 10Base2 LAN coaxial networks and security camera systems

D. Binary Network Connection, used for radio equipment and coax cameras

208 / 311

Which of the following is an accurate description of the Platform as a Service (PaaS) model of cloud computing?

A. PaaS is any application that you use but do not own or maintain.

B. PaaS allows a customer to generate code on the provider’s platform that can be executed.

C. PaaS only includes web hosting services like GoDaddy and A Small Orange.

D. PaaS providers charge the customer based on the amount of storage used.

209 / 311

What are some reasons for a single organization to move to a private cloud deployment?

A. Compatibility with legacy systems

B. Monetary impact

C. Regulations and privacy

D. All of the above

210 / 311

What is the primary purpose of copper connectors?

A. They are used to physically connect two devices made of copper

B. They are used for easy diagnostic point when connectivity is the suspected problem

C. They are a leftover from the mainframe days when wires needed to be screwed down to the screw terminals

D. They are meant to show that a device is made out of copper

211 / 311

Which of the following best describes the Local Connector (LC)?

A. It resembles a HDMI-style connector and is commonly found on coaxial cables.

B. It can be easily disassembled like the SC connector, allowing you to swap fiber lines side to side.

C. It resembles an RJ-style connector, is small in size, and is commonly found on MMF and SMF optic cables.

D. It is a large connector and not suited for greater density of ports on a switch.

212 / 311

What is the hybrid cloud model and what are its benefits?

A. It’s a standalone model that allows for local storage and server processing.

B. It’s a combination of the private and public cloud models, allowing for the elasticity of resources or additional capacity through ’cloud bursting’.

C. It’s a model used only for private storage and server processing.

D. It’s a public cloud model that provides large capacity storage and immediate access to resources.

213 / 311

What is the typical upload speed of the Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?

A. 10 Mbps

B. 0.5 Mbps

C. 1 Mbps

D. 20 Mbps

214 / 311

What is the range of IP addresses that RFC 1918 defines for medium-sized networks?

A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

B. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

C. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

D. 154.0.0.0 to 154.255.255.255

215 / 311

Which of the following best describes the purpose and design of a straight tip (ST) connector in fiber-optic cables?

A. It is a bayonet-style mechanism designed by AT&T that is commonly used with single-mode fiber.

B. It is mainly used for LAN connectivity on MMF.

C. It was designed by Cisco for use with multimode fiber.

D. Its looseness over time is a major benefit.

216 / 311

Which of the following correctly describes the function of a Converged Network Adapter (CNA) in a Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) setup?

A. It acts as an Ethernet card and encapsulates FC commands into Ethernet frames.

B. It reduces the need for Ethernet cables in the data center.

C. It directly communicates with the FC storage unit.

D. It forwards Ethernet packets to the FC switching plane.

217 / 311

Which of the following statements about the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are true?

A. UDP is a connection-oriented and sequenced protocol

B. UDP connects network applications to the network and is used by real-time protocols.

C. UDP is used by DNS for real-time zone transfers

D. UDP always ensures the data is populated by the requesting client

218 / 311

What does SDWAN decouple from branch routers?

A. Data plane

B. Management plane

C. Control plane

D. Application plane

219 / 311

What is the primary purpose of a CNAME record in the DNS?

A. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an MX record

B. It assists a mail server in identifying the mail servers for your domain

C. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record

D. It contains all the servers responsible for a particular zone file

220 / 311

How does the FTP protocol operate in active mode?

A. The server initiates the data channel from a port above TCP 1023 and sends it to a waiting port on the client above TCP 1023.

B. The client initiates the data channel from a port above TCP 1023 and sends it to the server on TCP port 21.

C. The server initiates the transfer from TCP port 20 to a destination port above TCP 1023 on the client.

D. The client initiates the transmission to the server for the data channel on TCP port 21.

221 / 311

Where is the back side of a patch panel typically connected to in a wiring closet?

A. Computer terminal RJ-45 jack

B. The Internet

C. The network router

D. The patch cable

222 / 311

What does Dynamic DNS accomplish?

A. It prevents hosts from updating their A records

B. It forces the administrator to manually maintain PTR records

C. It allows hosts to add and update their own A and PTR records

D. It removes protection for entries added by hosts

223 / 311

What is a hybrid topology in networking?

A. It is just another name for a full mesh topology

B. It is the combination of multiple topologies used for resiliency, load balancing, and connectivity

C. It is a topology where only edge switches are connected

D. It is a topology that only uses the SONET ring method

224 / 311

Which protocol is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) in IPv6?

A. TCP

B. ICMP

C. UDP

D. HTTP

225 / 311

What is the function of the default gateway in a network setting?

A. It helps in configuring the DHCP options.

B. It is the IP address that provides routing out of the immediate network.

C. It assists with the calculation of the subnet mask.

D. It is required for any IP address to function.

226 / 311

What is the purpose of designating a ’type’ to various parts of a network?

A. To classify the physical components used in those areas

B. To quickly identify the areas’ purpose and help plan for the infrastructure

C. To assign names and labels for easy reference

D. To identify the software applications running in those areas

227 / 311

What is the function of a fiber-optic transceiver in the network equipment?

A. It converts between the Ethernet and the internal electrical signaling.

B. It converts between the internal electrical signaling and light.

C. It regulates the speed of the Ethernet connection.

D. It ensures compatibility of the media type with the distance.

228 / 311

Which of the following best describes the IaaS model of cloud computing?

A. It allows customers to use the provider’s infrastructure of compute, network, and storage

B. It involves processing of data on the end-user computer

C. It revolves around having software support on thin client devices

D. It involves direct purchase of physical infrastructure

229 / 311

Which of the following statements about Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) is incorrect?

A. UTP is the most common cabling for Ethernet networks today.

B. UTP is shielded from electromagnetic interference (EMI).

C. UTP should always be cabled away from electrical lines and non-network cabling.

D. UTP cable has a PVC or Teflon cable jacket and contains four pairs of wires.

230 / 311

What is an important consideration when designing a WLAN infrastructure?

A. Ignoring the client density it can serve

B. Begin without a site survey

C. Design for the wireless client density it could serve

D. Focus only on wireless access points’ (WAPs) upgradability

231 / 311

What is the main function of the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) in a communication session?

A. It transports the media stream

B. It sets up the media stream

C. It encrypts the media stream

D. It provides backward compatibility with other communication protocols

232 / 311

What is the role of the Transport layer in a network?

A. The Transport layer is responsible for moving information down to the network layer from the TCP or UDP protocol

B. The Transport layer presents the application with a socket to communicate with on the network

C. The Transport layer contains two protocols: TCP and UDP

D. All of the above

233 / 311

Which cloud delivery model lets the user have equity in the equipment used for cloud computing?

A. Public Cloud

B. Private Cloud

C. Hybrid Cloud

D. Community Cloud

234 / 311

What is the maximum transmission unit (MTU) in the context of Ethernet?

A. The largest data that can be sent in a network without subdividing

B. The physical size of the Ethernet cable

C. The maximum number of data packets that can be sent in a second

D. The maximum number of devices that can be connected in a network

235 / 311

Which port does Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over SSL (LDAPS) use?

A. TCP port 389

B. TCP port 636

C. UDP port 389

D. TCP port 143

236 / 311

What are the two purposes served by fiber distribution panels in a network?

A. Terminating the individual fragile strands and limiting the signal range

B. Terminating the individual fragile strands and distributing the individual strands

C. Distributing the individual strands and providing signal amplification

D. Providing signal amplification and serving as a diagnostic point for troubleshooting

237 / 311

What is the difference between an internal and an external DNS?

A. Internal DNS serves internal clients while external DNS serves external clients

B. There’s no difference between internal and external DNS

C. External DNS manages the root servers while internal DNS manages the registrar servers

D. Internal DNS resolves to public IP addresses and external DNS resolves to private IP addresses

238 / 311

What is the main differentiator between the SFP and SFP+ transceivers?

A. SFP+ has a visually different form factor

B. SFP+ can support speeds up to 400 Gbps

C. SFP+ cannot be hot-swappable

D. SFP+ does not support copper media

239 / 311

What is the difference between active and passive modes in FTP?

A. Active mode encrypts the data, whereas passive mode does not.

B. In active mode, the server initiates the transfer, while in passive mode, the client initiates the transfer.

C. Passive mode uses UDP, while active mode uses TCP.

D. Active mode is used on the Internet, while passive mode is used on private networks.

240 / 311

What is the role of the application layer in a software-defined networking model?

A. It’s where the programmability elements such as applications or APIs are found.

B. It communicates directly with the network hardware.

C. It allows devices to be managed for the control and flow of data.

D. It replaces the need for physical networking devices completely.

241 / 311

Which of the following statements about Server Message Block (SMB) protocol is NOT accurate?

A. SMB listens for requests on TCP port 445.

B. SMB 3.1.1 is used for database and virtual machine storage over the network.

C. SMB is used with Microsoft products and is known as the Common Internet File System (CIFS).

D. SMB is a wireless protocol used to connect devices in a Local Area Network.

242 / 311

What does CIDR notation represent in networking and how does it relate to IPv4 and IPv6 addresses?

A. CIDR notation is a network engineer’s shorthand for notating the network ID in all IPs, regardless of the type.

B. CIDR notation is a way of writing out the network mask by counting the number of bits and using them to denote subnet masks in both IPv4 and IPv6.

C. CIDR notation only represents the hexadecimal value of an IP address.

D. CIDR notation is unique to IPv4 only and does not apply to IPv6 addresses.

243 / 311

Which of the following is a challenge with satellite communications?

A. It cannot support unidirectional communications.

B. The satellite dish cannot operate in bidirectional setup.

C. The delay due to transmission distance can make real-time protocols such as VoIP very difficult.

D. It cannot support data transmission.

244 / 311

What is meant by ’Broad Network Access’ in the context of cloud computing according to NIST?

A. It refers to the pool of resources that are shared over many virtual instances.

B. It refers to the ability of cloud services to be accessible over a network, not being a proprietary system.

C. It signifies the ability to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, etc.

D. It refers to the process of allocating resources based on a customer’s requirements at the time.

245 / 311

What is the key function of a Primary DNS Server?

A. It’s a backup copy of the zone file

B. It hosts a domain’s zone file

C. It resolves DNS on behalf of the client

D. It updates through a zone transfer from the primary zone file

246 / 311

What is the distinct advantage of Category 6a cable over Category 6 cable?

A. Category 6a cable supports 10 Gbps speeds for up to 100 meters, whereas Category 6 cable supports it only for 33 to 55 meters

B. Category 6a cable does not require a plastic separator

C. Category 6a cable utilizes standard RJ-45 ends

D. Category 6a cable can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps

247 / 311

What is the characteristic of Unicast communications?

A. It is a one-to-many communication

B. It is a many-to-many communication

C. It is a one-to-one communication

D. It is a many-to-one communication

248 / 311

What is the main responsibility of the infrastructure layer in the software-defined networking model?

A. It is the main communication channel between the SDN controller and the network hardware.

B. It allows access to the SDN controller’s logic to manage network devices.

C. It is responsible for data management.

D. It serves as the management of devices for the control and flow of data.

249 / 311

What is a potential drawback of using an imperative approach in orchestrating tasks for installing an application?

A. The need for a developer to configure specifics such as hostname or IP.

B. It’s a less classic approach compared to the declarative approach.

C. The success of an installation step can be dependent on the successful completion of a previous step.

D. The developer has no control over the installation steps that are executed.

250 / 311

What are the main functionalities of DHCP options?

A. They are mandatory parameters required for network communications

B. They are used for configuring the IP address of a network host

C. They extend functionalities of network communications such as specifying time servers and DNS servers

D. They are used for configuring the subnet mask for every IP address

251 / 311

What is the primary function of a syslog server in a network?

A. To provide conferencing call capabilities

B. To allow for postmortem of problems and security-related events

C. To provide communications over the Internet

D. To enable communication between Oracle databases

252 / 311

Which of the following correctly describes the differences between stranded and solid core network cabling?

A. Stranded cabling is used for permanent installations and solid core cabling is used for flexible connections.

B. Stranded cabling can be punched down to a punch panel while solid core cabling cannot.

C. Stranded core has a strength member that allows for the cable to be run in a riser while the solid core does not.

D. Stranded cabling is used for flexible wiring, such as patch cables, and lacks a strength member. Solid core is used for permanent installations and includes a strength member.

253 / 311

What aspects should be considered when choosing a fiber transceiver?

A. Compatibility matrix and application

B. Price and manufacturer

C. Cable color and packaging

D. Model number only

254 / 311

What is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) for the Transport layer in the OSI model?

A. Datagram

B. Segment

C. Packet

D. Frame

255 / 311

What is the purpose of Static Network Address Translation (SNAT)?

A. To map one-to-one between local (private or inside) and global (Internet) IP addresses

B. To globally route the Internet on your inside network

C. To allow all inside local addresses to share a single Global IP

D. To encrypt the communication between local and global network

256 / 311

What is meant by the term ’Multitenant’?

A. A single user who shares a pool of resources

B. The act of reserving access to certain resources for one group

C. A platform that supports multiple users or devices at the same time

D. A location where hardware is stored

257 / 311

What is the function of Class D network IDs?

A. They are used for large networks.

B. They are used for small networks.

C. They are used for individual networks.

D. They are used for multicasting purposes.

258 / 311

What is the primary function of SQLnet (1521) in reference to Oracle databases?

A. It enables communication between different data structures within the same database.

B. It provides admission control (authentication and authorization), bandwidth control, and management of endpoints.

C. It enables communication between Oracle databases for exchanging information for queries.

D. It performs call setup on a specific port.

259 / 311

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), which three service types are defined for cloud computing?

A. Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

B. Networking as a Service (NaaS), Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C. Software as a Service (SaaS), Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS), and Networking as a Service (NaaS)

D. Internet as a Service (InaaS), NaaS, and PaaS

260 / 311

In regards to wired topologies, which of the following statements is correct?

A. They are only used for Ethernet networking.

B. They are deprecated and no longer used in any technology areas.

C. They are still used in areas such as storage area networks (SANs), industrial control systems, and WANs.

D. They are only used in WANs.

261 / 311

What is the concept of Rapid Elasticity as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)?

A. The ability to time-share a pool of resources over several virtual instances

B. The customer’s ability to provision computer capabilities without any human interaction

C. Computer capabilities can be provisioned and released based on the customer’s requirements

D. The ability to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, and accounts

262 / 311

What is the primary difference between APC and UPC finishes on SC connectors?

A. APC cable ends are blue, while UPC cable ends are green

B. UPC cable ends have a polished dome to focus light into the core, while APC cable ends have an 8-degree angle

C. UPC cable ends are polished in a dome shape, while APC cable ends are polished flat

D. APC and UPC both combat reflection loss, but use different methods

263 / 311

What is the role of a Secondary DNS Server in a network domain?

A. It act as the primary and authoritative name server for the domain zone.

B. It serves as a backup to the primary DNS server and holds a copy of the zone file.

C. It resolves DNS on behalf of the client, but does not host a DNS zone.

D. It manages the root domain of the DNS hierarchy.

264 / 311

What is the maximum distance limitation and the Ethernet speed of the 40GBaseT standard?

A. Maximum distance of 50 meters and speed of 40 Mbps

B. Maximum distance of 30 meters and speed of 40 Gbps

C. Maximum distance of 100 meters and speed of 10 Gbps

D. Maximum distance of 55 meters and speed of 1 Gbps

265 / 311

What is the function of a subinterface in a router configuration?

A. To designate the primary IP address for the router

B. To facilitate communication between different VLANs

C. To regulate traffic based on packet size

D. To provide additional storage for data packets

266 / 311

What is the correct order of the process for DHCP on a client?

A. Offer, Acknowledge, Discover, Request

B. Discover, Acknowledge, Request, Offer

C. Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge

D. Acknowledge, Request, Discover, Offer

267 / 311

What is the purpose of IP exclusions in a DHCP scope?

A. To limit the IP addresses served to clients

B. For security by blocking IP addresses

C. To reserve specific IP addresses for services and devices

D. To block unused IP addresses in the pool

268 / 311

Which of the following statements accurately describe RIPE NCC?

A. It is the regional Internet registry for Africa.

B. It is responsible for assigning IP address blocks to private companies in Europe, the Middle East, and Central Asia.

C. It is the Internet Service Provider responsible for the management and assignment of IP addresses to its customers.

D. It is the organization that reserves private IPv4 address spaces for internal networks.

269 / 311

What is one of the main disadvantages of using a Public Cloud Hosting?

A. There is no control over server administration

B. It involves a monthly recurring fee

C. It lacks cloud connectivity options

D. It only works with Amazon Web Services and Azure

270 / 311

What does the term ’peer’, in the context of peer-to-peer networking, refer to?

A. A network node that can only function as a client

B. A network node that can only function as a server

C. A network node that can function as both a client and server simultaneously

D. A network node that is involved in illegal activities

271 / 311

What is the maximum network connectivity that SFPs can support?

A. 100 Mbps

B. 500 Mbps

C. 1 Gbps

D. 10 Gbps

272 / 311

What is the purpose of Class E network IDs in IP addressing?

A. They are used for large networks.

B. They are used for multicasting purposes.

C. They are considered for experimental use only and were never used.

D. They are used for small networks.

273 / 311

Which of the following is NOT a scenario where straight-through cables should be used according to the provided CompTIA Network+ study material?

A. Connecting computers to switches

B. Connecting routers to switches

C. Connecting computer to hubs

D. Connecting switches to switches

274 / 311

What is the role of the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) as referenced in RFC 1918?

A. It assigns public IP addresses to private companies, government entities, and RIRs.

B. It assigns private IP addresses to ISPs.

C. It distributes the remaining IPv4 addresses to the general public.

D. It coordinates IPv6 address space.

275 / 311

What is the primary benefit of utilizing SMTP TLS?

A. It increases the delivery speed of emails

B. It ensures that all mail is encrypted in transit

C. It eliminates the need for authentication

D. It allows the use of UDP instead of TCP

276 / 311

Why might an administrator choose to use a third-party or cloud-hosted DNS service over setting up an external DNS server themselves?

A. To maintain separate DNS servers for internal and external queries

B. To bypass the need for maintaining a large number of external DNS records

C. They lack the knowledge required to set up an external DNS server

D. The registrar does not provide DNS services

277 / 311

What best describes the function of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)?

A. It packet-switches data based on the layer 3 network addressing.

B. It uses an MPLS label to packet-switch data and operates at layer 2.5.

C. It requires a layer 2 protocol and uses the destination IP address for routing decisions.

D. It is a pure layer 3 protocol that eradicates the need for an underlying leased line.

278 / 311

What occurs when a DHCP reservation is created for a client on a DHCP server?

A. The client is provided with a random IP address each time it connects.

B. Other hosts can access the reservation IP address without having the matching MAC address.

C. The client’s MAC address is tied to a specific IP address.

D. The reservation IP address is accessible by all clients on the network.

279 / 311

What is true about the 100BaseFX standard according to the IEEE 802.3u specification?

A. The maximum distance capability is 550 meters.

B. It uses an LED-based source.

C. It delivers Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps.

D. It is capable of Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps over a 1300 nm laser with a 50-micron fiber-optic cable.

280 / 311

What is the difference between iterative and recursive DNS lookups based on client resolution?

A. In an iterative lookup, the client queries the root server directly, while in a recursive lookup, the client queries the ISP’s DNS server.

B. Iterative lookups involve caching the result while recursive lookups don’t.

C. Recursive lookups involve querying different servers starting from the root server to the resource record server, while in iterative lookup, a directed query is made to the internal DNS server.

D. In recursive lookups, the client needs to resolve FQDN from the ISP’s DNS server or an internal DNS server, while in iterative lookups, this process doesn’t occur.

281 / 311

What is a typical scenario of using a colocation for your computing needs?

A. Hosting your equipment in your own on-premises data center

B. Renting the necessary infrastructure in the public cloud

C. Hosting your equipment at an ISP’s data center

D. Placing corporate servers at a main location away from branch offices

282 / 311

What does Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) do?

A. Encrypts data in transit using SSL

B. Allows email clients to retrieve and read email on the email server

C. Search a directory service for objects

D. Allows email clients to transmit information in clear text

283 / 311

What is a virtual router and what feature does it provide?

A. A device that is like a physical router, commonly loaded as a VM appliance to facilitate layer 1 routing

B. A software application with no similarities to physical router, providing features like VPN services

C. An identical to a physical router, loaded as a VM appliance to facilitate layer 3 routing and offering features like BGP routing

D. A cloud-based service that replaces physical routers and offers services such as bandwidth management

284 / 311

What is the primary use of a CNAME (Canonical Name) record?

A. To identify the mail server for your domain

B. To allow an FQDN to resolve to an A record

C. To contain all the servers responsible for a particular zone file

D. To define a zone file and allow secondary DNS servers to know when the zone file has changed

285 / 311

What does the ’Measured Service’ characteristic of cloud computing as defined by NIST entail?

A. Services can be accessed on demand without any human interaction.

B. It refers to the ability to share resources over several virtual instances.

C. It allows for the provision and release of resources based on customer’s requirements.

D. It involves the monitoring, reporting, and control of resource usage, often serving as a basis for charges.

286 / 311

What are the two main methods for providing secure access to applications hosted in public clouds that need access to a private data center?

A. SSL and SSH

B. Firewalls and IDS systems

C. VPN and Private-Direct Connection

D. MPLS and LAN

287 / 311

What is one key use for the 100BaseSX standard (IEEE 802.3u) in fiber-optic networks?

A. It provides faster speeds than 1000Base and 10GBase standards

B. It uses laser-based source to ensure longer distance communication

C. It is a cheaper alternative to 100BaseFX as it uses an LED-based source

D. It has maximum distance of 2 kilometers using multimode fiber

288 / 311

What does the ’D’ in 23B + D, in the context of PRIMARY Rate Interface (PRI), represent?

A. Data carrier

B. Digital Signal

C. Delta channel

D. Data transfer

289 / 311

What is a characteristic feature of a Personal Area Network (PAN)?

A. It must use Bluetooth

B. It is only wireless

C. It can be wired or wireless

D. It is a large-scale network

290 / 311

What is the role of the priority in MX records within a domain’s zone file?

A. Priority determines the order in which the receiving server checks the mails

B. Priority sets the level of importance for each mail received

C. Priority helps the sending server to choose the recipient’s host

D. Priority sets the sequence for mail delivery within a network

291 / 311

What happens when a DHCP lease reaches 87.5 percent of its lease cycle if the DHCP server does not acknowledge renewal attempts?

A. The client releases the IP address immediately

B. The client auto-assigns itself a new IP address

C. The client sends a DHCP Request to any server in hopes of rebinding the lease

D. The lease time doubles and the client attempts to renew with the original server

292 / 311

What is the comparable characteristic of Symmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) to T1 leased lines?

A. Both are usually for small businesses

B. They deliver the same speed

C. They offer high speed for businesses

D. Both are expensive options for businesses

293 / 311

What is the purpose of the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)?

A. It is used for the management of servers and network devices.

B. It is an application protocol for web data communications.

C. It is used for connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration.

D. It provides encryption transfers via Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).

294 / 311

What is the significance of Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE) in connecting two offices separated by the Internet?

A. It prohibits the use of routing protocols

B. It enables privacy of data being tunneled through an internetwork

C. It discourages the use of GRE because it is a clear-text protocol

D. It allows a routing protocol such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) to work between the two offices

295 / 311

What is the role of the PDU header or type field during the decapsulation process in the OSI model?

A. It carries the payload from one layer to the next in the protocol stack.

B. It describes the delivery company chosen for transmitting data.

C. It holds information which upper layer the payload came from and to which it should be passed.

D. It is the envelope placed inside another that specifies street address.

296 / 311

Which of the following correctly describes the use of a PTR (Pointer Record)?

A. It allows a client to resolve an IP address to an FQDN.

B. It allows a client to resolve an FQDN to an IP address.

C. It allows hosts to add and update their own A records.

D. It provides an extra layer of protection with Active Directory integrated zones.

297 / 311

What are the two main methods of connecting applications in a public cloud to a private data center?

A. Ethernet and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) and Private-Direct Connection

C. Broadband Internet and Satellite Connection

D. Wireless and Fiber-Optic Connection

298 / 311

What does the topology of a network signify?

A. The color scheme of the network

B. The shape in which the network is connected

C. The cost of setting up the network

D. The priority of data packets in the network

299 / 311

What does Time To Live (TTL) refer to in the context of DNS resource records?

A. Time interval for the secondary DNS servers to request a refresh of the SOA records

B. Duration for which a resource record remains valid in a client or caching DNS server cache

C. Time taken for a full zone transfer to be performed

D. Duration for which the SOA record remains present on the primary DNS server

300 / 311

What enables a single fiber-optic cable to transmit and receive data?

A. Bidirectional transceivers

B. Duplex transceivers

C. Semi-reflective mirror

D. Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM)

301 / 311

What is the purpose of a MAC reservation in DHCP services?

A. To avoid IP address conflict between devices.

B. To ensure a specific client always receives the same IP address.

C. To prevent a specific client from connecting to the network.

D. To assign static IP addresses to all devices on a network.

302 / 311

What motivated the development of IPv6?

A. The proliferation of network address translation (NAT)

B. The need for new features not available in IPv4

C. The exhaustion of the IPv4 address space

D. The institution of the IETF in 1998

303 / 311

What is the purpose of multicast addresses in IPv6?

A. They are used for direct communications between two hosts.

B. They are used for internal routing and not intended for Internet routing.

C. They are used for a one-to-many address used in lieu of broadcasts.

D. They are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity.

304 / 311

What information does the SOA (Start of Authority) record in a zone file provide?

A. The IP addresses of all servers responsible for the zone file

B. The priority for the mail server targeting a specific domain

C. The information required for secondary DNS servers to check and identify changes in the zone file

D. Multiple names that a single host has

305 / 311

What is the specification that broadband cable operates on called?

A. High-Level Data Link Control

B. DOCSIS

C. Digital Subscriber Line

D. Fiber-optic node

306 / 311

What features make the Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MTRJ) connector increasingly popular?

A. It can be disassembled to swap the transmit-and-receive pairs

B. It resembles an RJ-45 connector and allows greater port density

C. It does not have a locking mechanism

D. It is only compatible with multimode fiber optic cables

307 / 311

Which of the following correctly describes the responsibilities of the Network layer (layer 3)?

A. It is responsible for the physical numbering of hosts and networks.

B. It is responsible for the logical numbering of hosts and networks and transporting data between networks.

C. Routers operate at the network layer to inhibit the movement of packets between networks.

D. The Network layer communicates with the layer below it using a protocol number.

308 / 311

What is the typical use of multimode fiber-optic cable (MMF)?

A. Long-distance transmission over several miles

B. Short to medium distance transmission in a building

C. Wireless connectivity over a large area

D. Underground external connectivity

309 / 311

What are some characteristics of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)?

A. UDP is connection-oriented and highly reliable.

B. UDP performs sequencing and retransmits segments if necessary.

C. UDP does not provide acknowledgement for received data.

D. UDP uses a large amount of overhead at the Transport layer.

310 / 311

Which of the following best describes the community cloud model?

A. A cloud model used only in the healthcare and financial sectors

B. A singular infrastructure shared by a group of organizations with specific requirements

C. A cloud model used by all government and educational institutions

D. A cloud model that restricts access to other members’ clouds

311 / 311

Which DNS record type assists a mail server in identifying the mail server for your domain, and must be published if you wish to receive mail from other servers?

A. CNAME records

B. NS records

C. SOA records

D. MX records

Your score is

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