Network+ N10-008 - 2.0 Infrastructure

Ref:📕CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

Network+ N10-008 – 2.0 Infrastructure

1 / 156

What is one of the main uses of VLANs in a network?

A. Provide Internet access to clients

B. Partition a network into subnetworks

C. Ensure all nodes have equal access to the network

D. Deliver power to network devices

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: VLANs primarily segment networks into several smaller sub-networks or partitions (known as broadcast domains). They provide logical separation of networks within the same physical infrastructure, controlling broadcasts, enhancing security, and achieving scalability.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 319 in PDF)

2 / 156

At which layers do load balancers typically function and make their decisions?

A. Layer 7 only

B. Layer 4 and Layer 3

C. Layer 2 and Layer 1

D. Layer 6 and Layer 5

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Load balancers typically function at layer 4 (Transport layer) and layer 3 (Network layer), inspecting the Transport layer ports and destination IP addresses. Based on this information and the load of ongoing requests from other users, they decide to forward the new request to the next available server.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 270 in PDF)

3 / 156

Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding wireless networks?

A. Wireless devices can only communicate with each other when they are not connected to a WAP

B. Basic service set (BSS) consists of multiple WAPs wired to a network

C. An ESS requires a wireless LAN controller (WLC) to be created

D. In an Infrastructure mode, wireless devices communicate directly to the WAP, even if they are communicating with each other and right next to each other

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Infrastructure mode extends the wired network to a wireless network with the use of a wireless access point (WAP). Wireless devices communicate directly with the WAP, even if they are communicating with each other and right next to each other.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 340 in PDF)

4 / 156

What is the purpose of the ’blocking’ state in a switch port transition?

A. To disable the port manually

B. To forward frames

C. To allow the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches

D. To prevent loop occurrence by not allowing frame forwarding

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’blocking’ state is the first state that a port transitions to when it becomes active on a switch. Its primary role is to prevent potential switching loops in the network. Although no frames are forwarded in this state, BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) are still transmitted so the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can calculate redundant paths.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 317 in PDF)

5 / 156

What does the term ’Root Bridge’ in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) refer to?

A. It refers to the switches that are not the root bridge

B. It is the redundant link with the highest cost to the root bridge

C. It refers to the switch with the highest bridge ID

D. It refers to the switch with the lowest bridge ID

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), the Root Bridge is defined as the switch with the lowest bridge ID. All other switches must make their way to the root bridge in the network, as it becomes the focus of the network. It is where all the servers are often located, and all redundancy is managed with the root.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 314 in PDF)

6 / 156

What does BGP use the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm for?

A. Choosing the best route to the source network

B. Monitoring the network traffic

C. Choosing the best route to the destination network

D. Securing internal network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm to choose the best route to the destination network. This is part of how it manages to maintain stability and reliability in Internet routing.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 302 in PDF)

7 / 156

What is the maximum data speed that the CDMA protocol can deliver?

A. 3 Mbps

B. 1 Mbps

C. 200 Kbps

D. 168 Mbps

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: CDMA-2000, a 3G protocol used by many providers that support CDMA, can deliver a maximum of 3 Mbps for data.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 348 in PDF)

8 / 156

How is the speed of a port on a switch measured?

A. In megabytes per second

B. In bits per second

C. In gigahertz

D. In data packets per second

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The speed of a port on a switch is measured in bits per second, with the possibilities of different speeds such as 10 Mb/s, 100 Mb/s, 1 Gb/s, 10 Gb/s, 25 Gb/s, and more.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 310 in PDF)

9 / 156

What is the primary mechanism to segment networks?

A. Duplex

B. Port Mirroring

C. Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs)

D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The primary mechanism to segment networks is through the use of Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). VLANs allow for logical segmentation of a network inside a physical switch, creating separate broadcast domains inside the same physical switch and controlling the number of broadcasts that each client can hear. They also provide scalability, flexibility for maintenance, security through the grouping of users and the application of access control lists and increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing their size.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 318 in PDF)

10 / 156

What is the function of a cable modem in network architecture?

A. It modulates and demodulates chirps and hisses onto a POTS line.

B. It is used in broadband Internet connectivity, modulating/demodulating data onto a channel using cable lines.

C. It functions by encoding data over telephone lines as audible screeches.

D. It communicates directly with the POTS modems.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A cable modem is used in broadband Internet connectivity. It uses the existing cable lines that already carry TV programming to modulate/demodulate data onto a channel and directly communicates with the fiber node in your local area.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 272 in PDF)

11 / 156

Which of the following are two aspects of wireless security that should be focused on according to the text?

A. Encryption and Hardware

B. Authentication/Authorization and Firmware

C. Encryption and Authentication/Authorization

D. Firmware and Hardware

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the text, encryption and authentication/authorization are the two aspects of wireless security that should be paid attention to. Encryption helps to secure data transmission and prevent eavesdropping, while authentication/authorization helps to ensure that unauthorized users cannot access protected parts of the network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 343 in PDF)

12 / 156

What is the function of flow control in Ethernet?

A. It increases the speed of the switchport

B. It allows the port to communicate back to the sender to temporarily stop sending data if the switchport buffers are full

C. It ensures the port is operating at half-duplex

D. It allows for backward compatibility with slower speeds

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Flow Control, also known as 802.3x pause frames, is a feature of Ethernet that allows a port to communicate back to the sender to transiently halt sending data if the switchport buffers are full. This is important in situations where high, uninterrupted speeds are required.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 311 in PDF)

13 / 156

What is the main function of the Collision Detection (CD) in the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)?

A. To stop any data transmission

B. To detect simultaneous data transmission and signal a temporary jam

C. To assign different access times to nodes

D. To enable conversations without back-off algorithms

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Collision Detection’ (CD) part of CSMA/CD is there to detect when two network nodes are attempting to transmit data at the same time. When this simultaneous transmission, or ’collision’, is detected, the nodes both transmit a temporary jam signal. This prevents any other nodes from creating additional collisions.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 311 in PDF)

14 / 156

What is the key difference between the encryption method used in WPA and the one used in WPA2?

A. WPA uses TKIP while WPA2 uses AES

B. WPA2 uses TKIP while WPA uses AES

C. Both WPA and WPA2 use TKIP only

D. Both WPA and WPA2 use AES only

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: WPA introduced Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), which uses the RC4 algorithm to provide per-packet keying to prevent eavesdropping. In WPA2, TKIP was replaced with Counter Cipher Mode (CCM) with Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) and uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm to protect data, which is more secure.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 344 in PDF)

15 / 156

What is the purpose of port mirroring in a network switch?

A. To capture packets for analyzing network issues.

B. To create a separate collision domain.

C. To isolate the conversation from other ports.

D. To increase the bandwidth of the network.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Port mirroring functionality allows for the mirroring of a port to another port. This functionality enables network administrators to eavesdrop on a conversation and record it for analysis with a packet capture host. It is a method used to diagnose and solve network issues.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 325 in PDF)

16 / 156

What is the primary function of the Security Console in an access control system?

A. It physically connects the reader and door lock

B. It is the application on the security officer’s desktop computer that communicates with the ACSs for user enrollment

C. It is a physical server or a virtual machine where an entry of a user’s access for various control points are created

D. It is the device that reads an employee’s swipe card or a keypad for access control

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The security console, usually software on a security officer’s computer, communicates with the access control servers to enroll users into the access control system. It’s also where audit reports are created.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 284 in PDF)

17 / 156

What are the three defining characteristics of a switchport?

A. Speed, Duplex, and MAC Address

B. Duplex, Flow Control, and IP Address

C. Speed, MAC Address, and Flow Control

D. Speed, Duplex, and Flow Control

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Every switchport has three defining characteristics: Speed indicates the rate of data transmission, measured in bits per second. Duplex refers to how data is transmitted and received – either half-duplex, where the same set of wires are used to express transmit and receive, or full-duplex, which uses a separate set of wires for transmitting and receiving. Flow Control is the mechanism that coordinates communication between the sender and the switchport, especially when the switchport buffers are full.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 310 in PDF)

18 / 156

What are the main differences between unidirectional and omnidirectional antennas?

A. Unidirectional antennas have a uniform radiation pattern, while omnidirectional antennas have a specific range of coverage

B. Unidirectional antennas, such as a Yagi antenna, have a decibel gain of 13.5 dBi, while omnidirectional antennas operate at a higher frequency

C. Unidirectional antennas form a conical radiation pattern and focus in one direction, while omnidirectional antennas provide uniform coverage in all directions

D. Unidirectional antennas are most commonly used, while omnidirectional antennas are preferred for specialized applications

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: As per the information given, a unidirectional antenna such as a Yagi produces a specific pattern that focuses in one direction, much like a blunt cone. In contrast, an omnidirectional antenna produces a uniform radiation pattern in all directions, which can be visualized as a doughnut shape.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 337 in PDF)

19 / 156

What is the role of a VPN headend (or concentrator) in a network?

A. It provides a connection to the internet service provider

B. It handles the encryption and decryption process of data packets

C. It provides wireless access to devices on the network

D. It is responsible for routing packets between different network segments

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A VPN concentrator (headend) handles the encryption and decryption process of data packets. It operates at layer 3 (Network layer) by encrypting the original data, encapsulating it inside various VPN protocols, and terminating the encrypted tunnel back to the original unencrypted packets.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 278 in PDF)

20 / 156

What is true about the 802.11a standard?

A. It was ratified in 1999 and was primarily used in home networks.

B. It operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies.

C. It uses orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) modulation.

D. It is capable of a maximum distance of 350 feet.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.11a standard uses orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) modulation. This has become the standard for all subsequent wireless standards.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 329 in PDF)

21 / 156

What are the roles of modulation and demodulation in a modem?

A. Modulation is the process of decoding a digital signal to analog, and demodulation is the process of recoding it back to digital.

B. Modulation is the process of encoding an analog signal into a digital signal, and demodulation is the process of encoding it back to analog.

C. Modulation is the process of encoding a digital signal into an analog signal, and demodulation is the process of decoding it back to digital.

D. Modulation and demodulation refer to increasing and decreasing the frequency of the signal respectively.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the context of a modem, modulation is the act of turning a digital signal into an analog one, while demodulation is the process of reversing this encoding back into a digital signal. This is crucial because it allows data to be transmitted over lines that were designed for analog signals, like telephone and cable lines.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 272 in PDF)

22 / 156

What is the main characteristic of decentralized printing?

A. It involves a centralized print server which manages all print jobs

B. It encompasses having a single networked client share the printer to the rest of the office

C. It applies when each computer manages its own print job from render to transmit over the network

D. It insists on the host sharing the printer to be on when someone prints a document

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In Decentralized printing, the printer language is rendered locally and each computer manages its own print job, from rendering the graphic display interface to transmitting the print language to the printer directly or over the network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 281 in PDF)

23 / 156

What is a unique feature of a next-generation firewall (NGFW) compared to traditional firewalls?

A. NGFW inspects traffic only at layer 3

B. NGFW enables deep packet inspection and uses an IPS to mitigate known threats

C. NGFW cannot manage bandwidth at the application level

D. NGFW does not allow termination of SSL encryption at the firewall

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) examine the traffic in depth (deep packet inspection) and use an IPS to manage known threats. They also manage bandwidth at the application level and allow SSL decryption at the firewall for effective inspection, which traditional firewalls do not do.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 277 in PDF)

24 / 156

What is the primary reason that the Supervisory System isn’t usually located in the cloud within Industrial control systems?

A. Cost

B. Latency issues

C. Scalability

D. Data Security

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Supervisory System is usually not located in the cloud because it needs to be as low latency as possible. Any delay in the processing and transmission of information could disrupt the timing and coordination necessary for the successful functioning of the automated manufacturing process.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 292 in PDF)

25 / 156

What is the purpose of traffic shaping in networking?

A. To increase the speed of the internet connection

B. To regulate data transfer to fit the speed of the connection

C. To add extra protective layer to the network traffic

D. To make sure the network traffic is encrypted

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Traffic shaping is used to control the volume of outgoing traffic on a network connection to meet the specified speed limit. In this context, it slows down the bit rate to 800 Mbps to avoid overage costs over 800 Mbps, not to increase the speed of the internet or to add an extra layer of protection or to encrypt the network traffic.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 303 in PDF)

26 / 156

What is the role of a Forwarding Port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

A. It is the port that has the highest cost and is not allowed to forward frames.

B. It is the port leading to the root bridge on the adjacent switch.

C. It is the port that is allowed to forward frames and assists in forwarding frames to a root bridge with the lowest cost.

D. It is the redundant link that has a higher cost to the root bridge and will not forward data.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), a Forwarding Port is a port that is allowed to forward frames to the root bridge, and is designated as such because it has the lowest cost. This helps in managing network redundancy and preventing switching loops.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 315 in PDF)

27 / 156

What functionality is performed by bridges?

A. Routing decisions based on destination IP addresses

B. Address learning and filtering decisions based on the MAC address table

C. Segmentation of broadcast domains

D. Fast ASIC functionality

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Bridges perform address learning and forward filtering decisions based on the MAC address table. They can even use Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). They are usually software-based switches and do not have the functionality of fast Application-Specific Integrated Circuits (ASICs) that physical switches do.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 263 in PDF)

28 / 156

What is a possible disadvantage of using jumbo frames in a network?

A. They reduce the maximum transmission unit (MTU)

B. They cause packet fragmentation

C. They can decrease network performance if not all equipment support them

D. They are not supported by iSCSI storage

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: While jumbo frames can improve network performance by preventing data fragmentation, they require all network equipment in the switching path to support this larger framing of data, also known as the maximum transmission unit (MTU). If not, using jumbo frames can actually cause a decrease in network performance.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 327 in PDF)

29 / 156

What is the role of the ’Forwarding’ state in a switch port transition?

A. It is the state where the port has been disabled by an administrator

B. It is the first state of any active port, ensuring that a loop will not occur

C. It is the state that allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches

D. If the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port, it transitions into this mode where frames are allowed to be forwarded

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Forwarding’ state of a port is the final transition stage when the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port. At this stage, frames are allowed to be forwarded.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 318 in PDF)

30 / 156

Which of the following is NOT correct about a path-vector protocol?

A. BGP is a path-vector routing protocol used for Internet routing of IPv4 and IPv6

B. Path-vector routing protocols are classified as distance-vector routing protocols because they listen to peer routers for their information

C. Path-vector routing protocols base their routing decisions on the speed of the connection

D. BGP uses a process called the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm for choosing the best route to the destination network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Path-vector routing protocol does not base its decisions on speed of the connection. Rather, BGP chooses the best path based on factors like network policies, path attributes etc.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 302 in PDF)

31 / 156

What is the role of the port cost in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

A. It helps determine the root bridge

B. It helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge

C. It helps determine which switch has the lowest MAC address

D. It helps determine which port the servers are located

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The port cost in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used to identify the fastest path to the root bridge. This is important in managing redundancy and preventing switching loops in the network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 315 in PDF)

32 / 156

What process does OSPF use to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculate routes?

A. Bandwidth metric

B. EIGRP protocol

C. OSPFv3 protocol

D. Dijkstra algorithm

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) uses the Dijkstra algorithm to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculate routes based on the bandwidth metric.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 299 in PDF)

33 / 156

What crucial information does a site survey provide when designing a wireless network?

A. The cost and acquisition of the wireless equipment

B. The optimal placement of Wireless Access Points (WAPs) and coverage area visualization

C. The reseller’s contact information

D. The model and firmware of the office laptops

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A site survey helps in temporary positioning of the equipment (including WAPs) to understand the best places for their installation and also creates a heat map to visualize the coverage area to ensure significant wireless network coverage.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 338 in PDF)

34 / 156

What happens during the STP convergence in a network?

A. All active ports are placed into a forwarding or blocking mode.

B. All active ports are placed into a listening or learning mode.

C. All active ports are placed into a forwarding and blocking mode simultaneously.

D. All active ports are stopped and then restarted.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: During STP convergence, all active ports on the switch are placed into either a forwarding or blocking mode. They are not put into listening or learning mode, nor are they stopped and restarted. Also, the ports do not operate in forward and blocking mode simultaneously.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 318 in PDF)

35 / 156

Which of the following types of VoIP phones can be described as a networked device, supplied with power over Ethernet, and contains a small switch inside itself?

A. Soft Phone

B. Virtual Phone

C. Wireless VoIP phone

D. Physical Phone

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Physical Phones are described in the passage as the most common phones used in many organizations. They are physical devices that are directly connected to the network via a network cable that also supplies power via Power over Ethernet (PoE). The text also mentions that these phones have an internal switch which allows one wire to supply network connection to both the VoIP phone and the desktop computer.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 278 in PDF)

36 / 156

What is the primary function of Smart Doorbells in the context of IoT?

A. Signal a foreseeable failure in factory devices

B. Monitor soil dampness in a crop field

C. Secure homes and packages by notifying the user of any motion detected at the door

D. Track when the homeowner is home and when they aren’t

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Smart Doorbells have become a common tool in securing homes. The technology detects motion at the door and instantly sends an alert to the user’s cellphone. This is aimed at preventing theft, especially of packages dropped off at the door. It’s also useful for other purposes such as avoiding disturbances or giving the illusion of somebody being at home.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 290 in PDF)

37 / 156

What is a soft phone in the context of Voice over IP (VoIP)?

A. A physical, networked device that lets you make and receive calls

B. A piece of software that mimics a physical phone

C. A wireless VoIP phone that can connect to the network wirelessly

D. A phone that can switch between VoIP and plain old telephone service

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A soft phone is a software solution that emulates the functionality of a physical phone, providing the ability to make and receive calls. It is built for maximum flexibility and is used by organizations to accommodate changing work dynamics such as remote and on-the-go work.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 279 in PDF)

38 / 156

Which of the following is a feature on a managed switch that can be used to secure your network?

A. Port mirroring

B. Load balancing

C. Port security

D. Power over Ethernet

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Port security is a feature on a managed switch that can be used to increase the security of your network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 325 in PDF)

39 / 156

Which of the following correctly describes the 802.11ac standard?

A. It operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies and is capable of a maximum speed of 600 Mbps

B. It was ratified in 2003 and became very popular because it introduced newer features

C. It operates on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and ISM, can use 25 frequencies of non-overlapping channels, and can theoretically reach maximum speeds of 6.93 Gbps

D. It operates exclusively on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and is not compatible with all previous 5 GHz wireless standards

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.11ac standard operates on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and ISM. It can use 25 frequencies of non-overlapping channels and permits channel bonding of up to eight 20 MHz channels to provide a single 160 MHz channel for higher speeds. Theoretically, it could reach maximum speeds of 6.93 Gbps with 802.11ac Wave 2.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 331 in PDF)

40 / 156

What is the functionality of the Auto-Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover (MDI-X)?

A. It allows for automatic detection of the transmit and receive pair.

B. It aggregates ports together for increasing bandwidth between switches.

C. It supports larger framing of data up to 9000 bytes.

D. It is a proprietary Cisco protocol for port aggregation.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Auto-Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover (MDI-X) allows for automatic detection of the transmit and receive pair, autocrossing the connection when a straight-through cable is present, connecting a switch to another switch.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 327 in PDF)

41 / 156

Which of the following statements about Repeaters is correct based on the provided text?

A. Repeaters are most commonly used in local area networks (LANs) as a network connectivity device.

B. Repeaters are used to boost a fiber-optic signal every 200 Kms when fiber-optic lines are run across a long distance.

C. Repeaters act as a security device on a network.

D. Repeaters are most commonly used in Wi-Fi networks.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the text, repeaters enhance incoming signals and retransmit them. They were initially used in networking when the attenuation of a signal was an issue. Today, repeaters are used in WAN applications like fiber-optic communications, where they are used to boost the signal every 200 Kms when fiber-optic lines are run across a long span.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 261 in PDF)

42 / 156

What are the two types of camera that can be used in physical security and what are their primary uses?

A. Fixed and zoom; recording surveillance activities and covering a larger area than a fixed camera

B. Fixed and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ); recording surveillance activities and intervention during accident or medical emergency

C. Zoom and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ); covering a larger area and intervention during accident or medical emergency

D. Fixed and pan-tilt; recording surveillance activities and covering a larger area

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: As described in the material, two types of camera can be deployed: fixed and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ), where fixed cameras are the best choice when recording for surveillance activities and PTZ cameras allow for 360-degree operations and zooming in on an area, most commonly used for intervention such as covering an area outside during an accident or medical emergency.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 286 in PDF)

43 / 156

What is the function of Transport Layer Security (TLS) in the context of Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP)?

A. Provide an encrypted tunnel and authentication between the host and the authenticating server before credentials are passed.

B. Provide an open tunnel for transferring credentials.

C. Provides a password for the user to authenticate.

D. Protects EAP messages by providing a digital signature.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: TLS within the context of PEAP provides an encrypted tunnel and authentication between the host and the authentication server prior to the passing of credentials. This ensures a secure method of transmission and verifies the entities involved.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 346 in PDF)

44 / 156

What is the function of a DSL modem?

A. It converts data into chirps and hisses for transmission over POTS lines

B. It communicates directly with the fiber node in your local area

C. It modulates and demodulates signals onto a POTS line to the phone company’s central office using a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz

D. It is used for providing broadband Internet connectivity

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A DSL modem acts by modulating and demodulating chirps and hisses onto a POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) line to the phone company’s central office (CO). It operates at a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz to transmit signals

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 272 in PDF)

45 / 156

What is a characteristic of static routing?

A. It optimizes routing decisions with the use of protocols

B. It doesn’t require manual intervention to update routing tables

C. It is automatically updated when a new network is introduced

D. It is generally used in small networks where there is not much change

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Static routing doesn’t have automatic updates for routing tables or the capacity for decision making in terms of which path to use. It is suitable for small networks due to the manual nature of updating routing information. This makes it a good choice for networks with little change, where its rigidity is not a drawback.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 295 in PDF)

46 / 156

Which of the following statements accurately describes the 802.11 standards?

A. The 802.11b standard has a maximum speed of 18 Mbps.

B. The 802.11g standard operates on the 5 GHz frequencies.

C. The 802.11a standard had a maximum distance of 190 feet and operates on the 5 GHz frequencies.

D. The 802.11b standard was ratified in 2001.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.11a standard, ratified in 1999, operates on the 5 GHz frequencies in the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band. The standard is capable of a maximum speed of 54 Mbps and a maximum distance of 190 feet.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 329 in PDF)

47 / 156

What is the purpose of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in a network?

A. It is used to derive the layer 2 destination MAC address for the destination IP address.

B. It is used to prevent broadcast traffic in IPv6 networks.

C. It is exclusively used by IPv6 to replace MAC address.

D. It is used to detect duplicate addresses in the network.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: ARP is used to find the layer 2 destination MAC address associated with a given IP address. It does so by sending an ARP request to all the devices on the network. When a device sees its IP address in the ARP request, it will send back an ARP reply containing its MAC address. The device that originally asked will then store this information in its ARP table.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 309 in PDF)

48 / 156

Which of the following correctly describes the first step of the network printing process?

A. The document is directly sent over the network without any changes.

B. Application renders the document using the graphic display interface against the first portion of the print driver for the printer.

C. The driver processes the EMF file and renders it with the other portion of the print driver.

D. The printer language is transmitted directly to the printer.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: When you hit the print button on your client, the application renders the document using the graphic display interface (GDI) against the first portion of the print driver for the particular printer. This first step converts the print to a language called an Enhanced Meta File (EMF).

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 280 in PDF)

49 / 156

Which statement accurately describes the characteristics of the Distance-vector routing protocol, RIP?

A. RIP sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 60 seconds.

B. RIP version 1 uses the multicast address to send routing updates.

C. RIP version 2 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.9 to send routing updates and the initial table.

D. RIP has a maximum hop count of 20.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: RIP version 2 does use the multicast address of 224.0.0.9 to send routing updates and the initial table to participating routers. This version of RIP enables classless routing by transmitting the table with the subnet mask included to handle the problem of using subnets in the network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 298 in PDF)

50 / 156

Within the context of Ethernet and IP Communications, what effect does a collision have on a network?

A. It increases the network bandwidth.

B. It has no effect on the network.

C. It slows down traffic and reduces bandwidth.

D. It expands the broadcast domain.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A collision occurs when two nodes send a frame simultaneously on the same physical network. It causes nodes to stop and wait, effectively reducing the network bandwidth and slowing down traffic.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 307 in PDF)

51 / 156

What is the primary role of a wireless LAN controller in a mesh network?

A. It coordinates channel assignment and forwards traffic between WAPs.

B. It provides power to all WAPs in the network.

C. It delivers Internet connection to all mesh WAPs.

D. It manages the cabling costs of the WAPs.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A wireless LAN controller in a mesh network has the role of coordinating channel assignment and forwarding traffic between Wireless Access Points (WAPs). This ensures optimal performance and efficient use of available bandwidth.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 342 in PDF)

52 / 156

What is a unique feature of smart speakers in a home network?

A. They can display pictures taken with your phone

B. They track when you are home and when you aren’t

C. They allow synchronized playback of an audio source across multiple devices

D. They communicate with the Internet and an app on your cellphone when someone approaches your door

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Smart speakers, such as Google Nest, Amazon Echo, and Apple HomePod, allow synchronized playback of an audio source, meaning they can all play the same audio source (music, news, audiobook, podcast) at the same time. This coordination creates a seamless audio environment throughout your home.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 290 in PDF)

53 / 156

What is the difference between a tagging port and an untagging port in an 802.1Q trunk system?

A. A tagging port forwards information to the far side switch with a VLAN tag while a untagging port reads it.

B. A tagging port simply refers to a voice port while an untagging port serves as communication between two switches.

C. An untagging port removes the VLAN tag from a frame while a tagging port attaches it.

D. A tagging port forwards the tagged data to normal network clients and an untagging port removes it.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In an 802.1Q trunk system, a tagging port attaches a VLAN tag to the frame before it leaves. An untagging port, on the other hand, removes the VLAN tag from the frame when it leaves.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 323 in PDF)

54 / 156

What is the main purpose of the Supervisory System in SCADA?

A. To program devices in the process line.

B. To control and monitor the distribution of resources.

C. To measure, monitor, and control plant production.

D. To analyze and store data on the cloud.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Supervisory System in SCADA is used for measurement, monitoring, and controlling production. It is often redundant as its failure could disrupt the entire production line. These systems have databases where production metrics are stored for quality control and customer usage in the case of utilities. Generally, this system is found in the server farm at the main plant.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 291 in PDF)

55 / 156

What is geofencing in the context of mobile device security?

A. It is an encryption method used in wireless protocols.

B. It is a type of MAC address filtering.

C. It is a location-based control method involving a virtual perimeter.

D. It is an authentication protocol for securing wireless systems.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Geofencing is a method of controlling mobile devices by their location. It creates a virtual perimeter around an area using mapping software. When a device is outside of this perimeter, it is considered in violation of compliance.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 347 in PDF)

56 / 156

What is the maximum data throughput for LTE/4G?

A. 1 Gbps download, 500 Mbps upload

B. 299 Mbps download, 75.4 Mbps upload

C. 20 Gbps download, 10 Gbps upload

D. 50 Mbps downloads, 250 Mbps uploads

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The maximum data throughput for LTE/4G is 299 Mbps download and 75.4 Mbps upload. This information is stated in the provided text.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 349 in PDF)

57 / 156

What is a collision domain and how does it affect network communications?

A. It’s a terminology used to describe all devices that receive a broadcast, thereby affecting network communication through uniting all devices

B. It’s the group of nodes that receive broadcasts sent out by a device, ultimately slowing down network speed due to the need of resolving all system IPs

C. It’s the situation when two nodes send a frame simultaneously on the same physical network causing a collision, reducing the bandwidth and affecting communication

D. It’s a term used to define all devices that send broadcast messages, ultimately affecting the network by increasing broadcast traffic

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A collision domain refers to a network scenario where one or more networks begin to transmit data at the same time ultimately ending in a data collision. This reduces the network’s communication efficiency because a collision requires all nodes on the network to stop and wait for a random period of time via the CSMA/CD contention method, making no data transmittable during this wait time.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 309 in PDF)

58 / 156

What is the key difference between the operation of the IPv4 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)?

A. ARP uses unicast, while NDP uses multicast

B. NDP uses broadcasts, while ARP uses multicast

C. ARP uses broadcasts, while NDP uses multicast

D. NDP uses unicast, while ARP uses broadcasts

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In an IPv4 network, when two hosts begin to communicate, the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) would send a broadcast to all listening hosts and devices on the network to find the MAC address corresponding to the destination IP address. The broadcast mechanism poses a challenge as the network size grows, with an increase in the residual bandwidth required from ARP. The Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) used by IPv6, however, resolves the destination layer 2 MAC address for a given destination IPv6 address using multicast traffic rather than broadcasts. This significantly reduces residual traffic.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 309 in PDF)

59 / 156

What primary metric is used by OSPF in its routing decisions and to construct the initial shortest path tree?

A. Hop count

B. Bandwidth

C. Amount of traffic

D. Signal strength

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) uses the Dijkstra algorithm to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculates routes based on the bandwidth metric.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 299 in PDF)

60 / 156

Which of the following is considered an exterior routing protocol?

A. OSPF

B. EIGRP

C. RIP

D. BGP

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: According to the given text, Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is used as the main routing protocol on the Internet, thus it is considered an exterior routing protocol. All other routing protocols (with exception of BGP) are considered interior routing protocols, meaning they are primarily used within a network, not on the exterior (Internet).

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 296 in PDF)

61 / 156

What are the two main networks within an HVAC control system?

A. Wireless and Wired network

B. Internet and Intranet network

C. Ethernet and Low-voltage network

D. Token ring and Bus network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In an HVAC control system, there are two main networks: the Ethernet network and the low-voltage network. The Ethernet network is how the HVAC application communicates with the HVAC control server and how the server communicates with the HVAC control panels. The low-voltage network is typically a serial communication network that connects different units.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 289 in PDF)

62 / 156

Which of the following statements about Internet of Things (IoT) in the context of home networks is incorrect?

A. Smart thermostats can track when you are home and adjust the heating and cooling cycles accordingly

B. Smart speakers such as Google Nest, Amazon Echo, and Apple HomePod can be controlled entirely by voice commands

C. Smart refrigerators only operate with Apple’s iOS operating system, prohibiting apps from being downloaded

D. Smart doorbells are able to sense motion at the door, send an alert to your cellphone and provide video footage

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the provided text, it is stated that smart refrigerators usually run the Android operating system which allows many different types of apps to be downloaded, therefore, stating that they only operate with Apple’s iOS operating system is incorrect.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 289 in PDF)

63 / 156

Which standards operate on the 5 GHz frequency in WLANs?

A. 802.11 a/n/ac/ax

B. 802.11 b/g/n

C. 802.11 a/b/g

D. 802.11 n/ac

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.11 a/n/ac/ax standards operate on the 5 GHz frequency spectrum, as mentioned in the text.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 333 in PDF)

64 / 156

What is a Reader in the context of access control systems?

A. A device used in access control systems which can use various technologies to authenticate a user

B. A piece of software used to interpret keycard data

C. A unique identification number assigned to each user

D. A component in an Ethernet network that routes data packets

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the discussed text, the Reader is described as a device that can employ various technologies such as magstripe cards or RFID cards to authenticate a user in an access control system. Besides card technologies, readers can also include keypads and enchanced security features like duress and kill codes.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 285 in PDF)

65 / 156

Which of the following describes the operation of a port in full-duplex mode?

A. The same wires are used to transmit and receive data creating a single collision domain.

B. A set of wires is dedicated for transmitting and a set is dedicated for receiving data, allowing for simultaneous data transmission and reception.

C. The port transmits and receives data alternatively, leading to possible transmission collision.

D. The port operates at half the speed of wire bidirectionally

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In full-duplex mode, a set of wires is dedicated for transmitting data and another set is dedicated for receiving data. This setup allows simultaneous transmission and reception of data without risk of collision. Furthermore, if the switch supports the full speed of the wire, the switchport can potentially switch the full speed of the wire bidirectionally.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 310 in PDF)

66 / 156

Which of the following is true regarding VoIP PBX?

A. It requires a separate wired infrastructure

B. It is incompatible with TDM phones

C. It is incapable of providing enterprise-type call features

D. An added feature is the ability for remote offices to use the same VoIP PBX as the main office for all end user communications

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: VoIP PBX allows remote offices to use the same system as the main office, which greatly simplifies and streamlines communication across different locations.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 273 in PDF)

67 / 156

Which of the following functions do switches perform at layer 2 (Data Link Layer)?

A. Routing

B. MAC address learning and forward filter decisions based on MAC addresses learned

C. Transmission of analog signals

D. Conversion between copper Ethernet and fiber-optic cable.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Switches function at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model. At this layer, switches perform MAC address learning and make forward filter decisions based on the MAC addresses learned.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 262 in PDF)

68 / 156

Which wireless standards operate on 2.4 GHz frequencies?

A. 802.11a and 802.11n

B. 802.11a and 802.11ac

C. 802.11b/g/n

D. 802.11ac and 802.11ax

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The wireless standards that operate on 2.4 GHz frequencies are 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. This is stated in the excerpt.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 332 in PDF)

69 / 156

What is the successor to WPA and what encryption standard does it use to protect data?

A. WPA3 and RC4

B. WPA2 and TKIP

C. WPA2 and AES

D. WPA3 and AES

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) is the successor to WPA and it uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm to protect data.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 344 in PDF)

70 / 156

What is a unique feature of the 802.11ax standard?

A. It operates only on the 2.4 GHz radio band

B. It has a maximum speed of 600 Mbps

C. It includes a feature called Target Wake Time (TWT)

D. It can use 23 frequencies of nonoverlapping channels

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.11ax standard includes a feature called Target Wake Time (TWT), which can extend battery performance for mobile and IoT wireless devices. The wake interval is negotiated between a client and an access point, allowing the device to enter into a sleep cycle and wake up at a specific time to receive information or transmit to the access point.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 331 in PDF)

71 / 156

What is the main function of a Wireless Access Point (WAP)?

A. To extend the wired network to a wireless network

B. To provide internet service to wired devices

C. To store network data

D. To act as a firewall for the network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The main functional role of a Wireless Access Point (WAP) is to act as a bridge, extending the wired network to a wireless network. This allows mobile devices and specialized wireless-enabled equipment to access the network infrastructure.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 266 in PDF)

72 / 156

What is a disadvantage of an Ad Hoc wireless network?

A. It can only function in infrastructure mode

B. It requires a lot of infrastructure

C. Its distance of communication is usually less than 100 feet

D. It allows too many devices to connect

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Ad Hoc wireless networks often have a shorter communication distance than traditional wireless networks with a WAP. This is due to the lower transmitting power of client wireless adapters and the smaller size of the client’s antenna in comparison to WAP antennas.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 339 in PDF)

73 / 156

Which of the following is true about Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM)?

A. It is compatible with CDMA equipment.

B. It is a standard developed by the United States.

C. Its maximum data speed for Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (Edge) is 500 Kbps.

D. It was originally designed by Qualcomm as a competitor to CDMA networks.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) is a global standard used worldwide and offers Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (Edge) with a maximum data speed of 1 Mbps, but is typically limited to 500 Kbps.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 348 in PDF)

74 / 156

What is the throughput rate possible with the introduction of 802.11ac that allows eight 20 MHz channels to be bonded together?

A. 7 Gbps

B. 14 Gbps

C. 10 Gbps

D. 20 Gbps

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: With the introduction of 802.11ac, we can now bond eight 20 MHz channels together for 160 MHz of bandwidth. With modern modulation and coding techniques, we can obtain the throughput of 14 Gbps over these bonded channels!

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 334 in PDF)

75 / 156

What is the purpose of the ’Learning’ port state in a switch?

A. It ensures that a loop will not occur in the network

B. It allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches so that it can calculate its own STP database

C. It allows the switch to forward frames.

D. It is a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Learning’ port state works in conjunction with a listening port; it allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches so that it can calculate its own STP database.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 318 in PDF)

76 / 156

What is the special functionality that a layer 3 switch brings compared to a layer 2 switch?

A. It can participate in dynamic routing protocols

B. It only routes between VLANs

C. It can generate its own electricity

D. It does not support switchports

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A layer 3 switch is capable of both switching functionality and routing functionality. One specific feature is that they can participate in dynamic routing protocols, given the right type or model.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 265 in PDF)

77 / 156

What is the purpose of the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky in Port Security?

A. To prevent the switch from recording the MAC address

B. To enable the switch to remember only the first MAC address and restrict the port to that address

C. To allow the switch to remember all MAC addresses connecting to this port

D. To remove the MAC address from the switching table after a period of inactivity

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The switchport port-security mac-address sticky command is used to make the switch remember the first MAC address that connects to that port, and restricts the port to only that address. Unless an administrator clears it, this address is remembered indefinitely.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 325 in PDF)

78 / 156

Why is EIGRP not considered a true distance-vector routing protocol?

A. It doesn’t use hop count solely for routing decisions.

B. It uses only IP-based routing.

C. It doesn’t support classless routing.

D. It is not compatible with IPv6.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: EIGRP doesn’t use hop count solely for routing decisions; it can use a combination of bandwidth, delay, load, reliability, and maximum transmission units (MTUs), making it not a true distance-vector routing protocol.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 300 in PDF)

79 / 156

What is one functionality of a smart thermostat?

A. It tracks when you are home and adjusts the heating and cooling cycles accordingly.

B. It downloads various apps for entertainment purposes.

C. It plays synchronized audio playback across your home.

D. It records motion at your doorstep to prevent package theft.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Smart thermostats have the ability to learn your habits and adjust the heating and cooling cycles in your home. They track when you’re home and not home, and adjust the HVAC system to be more economical. They can also react based on the current weather conditions.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 290 in PDF)

80 / 156

Which type of routing reduces the amount of administrator intervention and optimizes routing decisions through the use of routing protocols ?

A. Static Routing

B. Default Routing

C. Dynamic Routing

D. Hybrid Routing

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Dynamic Routing reduces the amount of administrator intervention by automating the trading of routing tables or entries with the use of routing protocols. This allows routers to learn new routes to networks from other routers participating in the dynamic routing process. Routing decisions are optimized with the use of routing protocols in the dynamic routing process. Multiple routes to the same destination network can exist; the routing protocol will select the best route based on the metric.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 296 in PDF)

81 / 156

What is the primary benefit of using a caching proxy server?

A. It enables a single sign-on to access multiple services

B. It mitigates denial of service (DoS) attacks

C. It reduces bandwidth consumption and load on web servers

D. It serves clients in the reverse order of requests

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: By using a caching proxy, multiple requests for the same data can be served from the cache rather than generating duplicate requests to the Internet. This saves bandwidth and reduces the load on the web servers.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 270 in PDF)

82 / 156

What is the maximum speed and frequency of 802.11g?

A. 54 Mbps and 2.4 GHz

B. 11 Mbps and 5 GHz

C. 600 Mbps and 2.4 GHz

D. 54 Mbps and 5 GHz

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: 802.11g operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies in the ISM radio band and it is capable of a maximum speed of 54 Mbps.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 330 in PDF)

83 / 156

What role does the Supervisory System play in an industrial environment?

A. It distributes energy and resources

B. It measures, monitors and controls plant production

C. It allows remote control to the industrial process

D. It develops and programs ladder logic into the controllers

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Supervisory System is crucial in the monitoring, controlling and measurement of plant production. It allows for the observation and control of production metrics and processes and can store these metrics for quality control and customer usage where applicable.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 292 in PDF)

84 / 156

What is the purpose of the blocking state in STP port states?

A. To allow the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches and calculate its own STP database.

B. To ensure that a loop will not occur by blocking traffic.

C. To forward frames if the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port.

D. To disable a port. This is manually done by an administrator.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The blocking state is the initial state of any active port. Its purpose is to prevent a switching loop from happening in the network by blocking all user data frames. BPDUs are still transmitted during this state to enable the Spanning Tree Algorithm to calculate redundant paths.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 317 in PDF)

85 / 156

What is the primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

A. To block data from being switched on a primary link

B. To allow multiple paths between switching equipment for better bandwidth

C. To create redundant connections in a network and avoid switching loops

D. To initiate a broadcast storm when there are redundant links

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically used to create redundant connections in a network and avoid switching loops, which can cut the bandwidth in half or even cause a broadcast storm, severely impairing bandwidth and significantly increasing CPU utilization as each host’s operating system processes the broadcasts.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 313 in PDF)

86 / 156

What is the role of a wireless LAN controller (WLC or WLAN Controller) when deploying access points?

A. It controls only internal functions of the access points like SSID and channel assignment.

B. It allows the access points to maintain their full operating system.

C. It facilitates aspects such as coordination and deployment services for the client and access points.

D. It only manages the configuration data for diagnostics.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text explains that a WLC or WLAN Controller provides coordination services for clients as well as deployment services for access points in the network. It also highlights that it is responsible for the control, data, and management planes of the network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 268 in PDF)

87 / 156

What are some key characteristics of the 802.11b wireless protocol standard?

A. Operates on 5 GHz frequencies, uses OFDM modulation, and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps

B. Operates on 2.4 GHz frequencies, uses DSSS modulation, and has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps

C. Operates on 2.4 GHz frequencies, uses OFDM modulation, and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps

D. Operates on 5 GHz frequencies, uses DSSS modulation, and has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.11b wireless protocol standard operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies and uses DSSS (Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum) modulation. Its maximum speed is 11 Mbps.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 329 in PDF)

88 / 156

What are the enhancements introduced in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) compared to the original Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

A. RSTP introduces a slower convergence time than STP.

B. RSTP does not consider path cost when calculating forwarding ports.

C. RSTP introduces two port modes: backup and alternate ports.

D. RSTP is not backward compatible with STP.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: RSTP introduces two additional port modes to STP: backup and alternate ports. The addition of these port roles contributes to faster convergence times in the network because it allows for the efficient use of redundant paths.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 318 in PDF)

89 / 156

What does ’Disabled’ state indicate in port transitions of a switch?

A. It is the first state of any active port.

B. It ensures that a loop will not occur.

C. It is a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator.

D. It indicates that the port has a redundant path or is the lowest cost port.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: ’Disabled’ refers to a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator. It’s not really an STP port state. Bypassed by an administrator for reasons like maintenance, security, or fault isolation, this port will not forward frames.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 317 in PDF)

90 / 156

Which of the following options correctly describes the HVAC control application?

A. It logs data and allows a technician to troubleshoot if needed

B. It is a device in the HVAC system that needs controlled in some way

C. It is where the HVAC technician can set work schedules, adjust temperatures, and monitor the HVAC system

D. It is where the HVAC control server communicates with the control panel

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The HVAC control application is where the HVAC technician can perform tasks such as setting work schedules, adjusting the temperature, and monitoring/troubleshooting the HVAC system.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 287 in PDF)

91 / 156

What is a key difference between a physical VoIP phone and a soft phone?

A. A soft phone requires a physical handset, while a physical VoIP phone does not

B. A physical VoIP phone is a type of application, while a soft phone is a standalone device

C. A soft phone is a piece of software that performs the functions of a phone, while a physical VoIP phone is a tangible device

D. Physical VoIP phones can only be used for voice calls, while soft phones can also send text messages

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: This is correct, the text describes a physical VoIP phone as a tangible networked device that allows calls to and from the user. On the other hand, a soft phone is described as a piece of software that looks like a physical phone but only exists as a piece of software.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 279 in PDF)

92 / 156

What function does a media converter serve in a network setup?

A. It ensures that data is encrypted when passing through different media.

B. It repeats a digital signal on a different media, converting the signal on the new media.

C. It increases the bandwidth of the network.

D. It segments the network further for security and control of broadcasts.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A media converter repeats a digital signal on a different media type, allowing conversion between copper Ethernet and fiber-optic cable, for example. This allows for network connectivity over distances greater than copper Ethernet’s limit of 100 meters.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 262 in PDF)

93 / 156

Which of the following best describes the functionality of a hub in a network?

A. Hubs function at layer 7 (application layer) of the OSI model and perform complex routing.

B. Hubs function as multiport repeaters at the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model, repeating Ethernet frames on all ports.

C. Hubs boost the fiber-optic signal in WAN applications over long distances.

D. Hubs drop frames from devices not participating in the exchange of data, conserving useful bandwidth.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Hubs operate at the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model. They function as multiport repeaters, repeating the Ethernet frames sent by any device on all other connected ports. This behavior forces devices not participating in the specific exchange of data to ’listen’ to the conversation and takes up bandwidth, even though these non-participating devices will simply drop the frames.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 260 in PDF)

94 / 156

What is the function of a Voice VLAN in a network?

A. It allows a switchport to support only a computer.

B. It allows a switchport to support only a VoIP phone.

C. It allows a switchport to support both a VoIP phone and a computer simultaneously.

D. It blocks all traffic to the VoIP phone and computer.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A voice VLAN allows a switchport to support both a VoIP phone and a computer at the same time, by acting as both a tagged port for the VoIP traffic and an untagged port for the computer’s data traffic. This is made possible by the small switch inside the phone that can divert traffic tagged with the voice VLAN to the phone and untagged traffic to the computer.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 324 in PDF)

95 / 156

What does a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) in an industrial control system do?

A. It provides a human-machine interface to observe the production line.

B. It allows operators to intervene and control processes in case of issues from remote locations.

C. It runs logic circuits to control various parameters and components in a production environment.

D. It supervises the entire plant operation, measuring, monitoring, and controlling production metrics.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) in an industrial control system runs logic circuits to carry out tasks. It can control inputs and outputs that are wired to machinery or other components of the production process.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 292 in PDF)

96 / 156

What is the function of the DSCP Assured Forwarding (AF) values in DiffServ?

A. They determine the speed of data transfer.

B. They identify the queue and drop probability of traffic.

C. They define the QoS markings.

D. They secure the IP header at layer 3.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In DiffServ, the DSCP Assured Forwarding (AF) values are a combination of a two-digit value. The first digit identifies the queue, with 1 being worst and 4 being best. The second digit refers to the drop probability, where 1 is low and 3 is high. Therefore, these values determine how traffic is queued and the likelihood of it being dropped.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 304 in PDF)

97 / 156

Which of the following best describes the function of the Human Machine Interface (HMI) in an industrial control system?

A. It’s responsible for physically manipulating production components on the assembly line

B. It’s a server hosting a database where production metrics are stored

C. It’s a visualization tool used by plant operators to monitor the production line, and identify and adjust processes as necessary

D. It’s a computer unit located in remote facilities with remote control capabilities

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The HMI is a human interaction part of the industrial control system. It provides a simple layout or visual of the production line and displays various metrics to plant operators. Operators can use this interface to track the production process in real-time, identify faults or failures in the line, and make necessary adjustments.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 292 in PDF)

98 / 156

Which of the following best describes the RIP (Routing Information Protocol)?

A. It is a distance-vector routing protocol used in large networks.

B. RIP sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds and has a maximum hop count of 30.

C. It is a link-state routing protocol with a slow convergence time susceptible to routing loops.

D. It is a true distance-vector routing protocol used for dynamic routing in small networks. It sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds and has a maximum hop count of 15.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: RIP is indeed a distance-vector routing protocol primarily used in small networks. It broadcasts complete routing tables to neighboring routers over all active networks every 30 seconds and limits the maximum hop count to 15.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 298 in PDF)

99 / 156

In the context of port states in a switch’s STP processes, what is the purpose of the ’Listening’ state?

A. It functions to disable a port that has been turned off by an administrator.

B. It allows the port to forward frames.

C. It calculates redundant paths by transmitting BPDUs.

D. It allows the port to listen for BPDUs.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The ’Listening’ state in a switch’s STP processes allows the port to listen for Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). Through these BPDUs, the port can gain information about the network topology.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 317 in PDF)

100 / 156

Why should VoIP take a higher precedence in the network than simple web browsing or file-based access?

A. Because VoIP uses less data

B. Because VoIP is a non-time-sensitive service

C. Because VoIP is a time-sensitive service

D. Because VoIP uses more data

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: VoIP should take a higher precedence in the network than simple web browsing or even file-based access because it is a time-sensitive service. Any delay in the data transfer could affect the quality of the call.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 302 in PDF)

101 / 156

What can be used to reduce the impact of broadcast traffic in a network?

A. Replace all hubs with switches

B. Create additional network segments

C. Increase the number of switches

D. Reduce the usage of ARP protocol

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: To mitigate the congestion that broadcasts can cause, more broadcast domains can be created, thereby limiting the number of devices impacted. This can be achieved by constructing additional network segments and connecting these segments with a router.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 307 in PDF)

102 / 156

What is the principal characteristic when EAP-TLS is deployed in conjunction with a certificate authority?

A. The deployment is less secure

B. Each user or computer is issued a group certificate

C. Shared passphrases are used

D. Each user or computer is issued an individual certificate

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: When EAP-TLS is deployed in conjunction with a certificate authority, each user or computer is issued an individual certificate. This adds extra security to the deployment.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 347 in PDF)

103 / 156

What is the key difference between an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?

A. IDS only logs and alerts about intrusions, while IPS prevents intrusions

B. IDS prevents intrusions, while IPS logs and alerts about them

C. IDS operates based on signatures, while IPS operates based on traffic anomalies

D. IDS requires a subscription from the provider, while IPS does not

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: While both Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) use signature-based and anomaly-based detections, log traffic, and alert administrators about potential intrusions, the major difference is that the IDS simply logs and alerts about the intrusions, while the IPS attempts to prevent the intrusion by dropping the packets of the malicious transmission or actively blocking the offending IP address.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 275 in PDF)

104 / 156

What is the role of the Root Port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

A. It is the link with the lowest MAC address.

B. It is the port that is not allowed to forward frames.

C. It is the port leading to the root bridge on the adjacent switch.

D. It is the switch with the lowest bridge ID.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The root port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is the port that leads to the root bridge from the adjacent switch. In case of multiple ports from the same switch leading to the root bridge, the port with the lowest cost becomes the root port.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 315 in PDF)

105 / 156

What is the role of a VoIP gateway in the context of a telephone network?

A. It helps to use a VoIP network for accessing social media.

B. It interfaces a VoIP PBX with an existing PBX or the public switched telephone network (PSTN).

C. It shields a VoIP network from cyber attacks.

D. It improves the speed of internet provided by a VoIP provider.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A VoIP gateway interfaces a VoIP PBX with an existing PBX or the PSTN. This means that it can bridge the voice data from the IP network with the traditional telephone system, either by transforming IP packets into traditional telephone signals or vice versa.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 273 in PDF)

106 / 156

Which type of routing is useful in stub networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface?

A. Dynamic Routing

B. Static Routing

C. Default Routing

D. Hybrid Routing

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Default routing is used in stub networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface. A perfect example of this is the Internet. Default routing can also be referred to as the gateway of last resort.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 294 in PDF)

107 / 156

What is the role of a door lock in an access control system?

A. It retracts a pin in the strike to allow the door to open.

B. It connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network.

C. It is the network that connects devices and computers with switches.

D. It is an application on the security officer’s desktop computer.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In an access control system, the door lock is key to controlling access. Either through a mechanical or magnetic configuration, the lock grants or denies access by unlocking or locking the door. The mechanical door lock, specifically, uses a solenoid to retract a latch or a pin in the strike to allow the door to open.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 285 in PDF)

108 / 156

What does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) use in conjunction with message integrity checks (MICs) to check the integrity of messages received by the access point?

A. Michael

B. RC4 Seed

C. MAC Address

D. Initialization Vector

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: TKIP uses the MIC protocol, also known as Michael, a 32-bit cyclic redundancy check (CRC), in conjunction to check the integrity of messages received by the access point.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 345 in PDF)

109 / 156

What are the two networks that access control systems have?

A. Ethernet network and wireless network

B. Bluetooth network and low-voltage network

C. Ethernet network and low-voltage network

D. Wireless network and Bluetooth network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Access control systems have two distinct networks: the Ethernet network and the low-voltage network. The Ethernet network is what connects devices and computers with switches and is also what connects the access control panel to the network. The low-voltage network has wiring between the access control panel and various devices at the control point.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 283 in PDF)

110 / 156

Which of the following describes the role of the HVAC Control Application in a HVAC system?

A. It acts as a switch turning the HVAC system on and off.

B. It is where the HVAC technician regulates schedules, adjusts temperatures, and examines the system.

C. It is a physical panel where programming instructions are deployed.

D. It stores data and sends notifications to the technicians.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The HVAC Control Application allows the HVAC technician to control and monitor the HVAC system. This is where tasks are performed such as setting work schedules, adjusting temperatures, and troubleshooting issues within the HVAC system.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 288 in PDF)

111 / 156

What is the purpose of a Blocking Port in the STP (802.1D) protocol?

A. To forward frames to the root bridge

B. To forward all data within the network

C. To prevent forwarding of frames but allow forwarding of BPDUs

D. To guarantee the functioning of redundant links

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), a blocking port is utilized to block the forwarding of frames, preventing formation of loops in the network. However, it still allows the forwarding of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) in order to maintain network structure and information.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 315 in PDF)

112 / 156

What is the function of the Access Control Panel in a network security system?

A. It connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network

B. It creates audit reports for user access management

C. It enrolls new users into the access control system

D. It rekeys all locks when a master key is lost

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Access Control Panel serves as the bridge between the Ethernet network and the low-voltage network. It is where the control point, such as the reader and the door lock, are logically configured and physically connected.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 285 in PDF)

113 / 156

What is the function of the MIC in CCMP-AES?

A. It is used to seed the AES encryption

B. It is used to encrypt the next block of text

C. It is used to check the integrity of wireless data received

D. It is used to rekey the session

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In CCMP-AES, the Message Integrity Code (MIC) is used to check the integrity of wireless data received. It ensures that the data has not been tampered with during transmission.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 345 in PDF)

114 / 156

What is the function of the Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) in the STP (802.1D) protocol?

A. It helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge.

B. It elects the root bridge among the switches.

C. It blocks redundant links from causing a switching loop.

D. It forwards BPDUs on blocking ports.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) is used in the STP protocol to prevent switching loops by blocking redundant links. Blocking these redundant links ensures that there is only one active path between any two nodes on a network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 314 in PDF)

115 / 156

Which of the following is NOT a feature or characteristic of 5G technology?

A. It offers lower latency of less than 10 milliseconds.

B. It can support 100x more devices than LTE/4G.

C. It is a CDMA technology.

D. It was created by the 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP).

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: 5G technology is not a CDMA technology. Instead, 4G LTE, which is the technology replaced by 5G, specifically utilizes orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA), not CDMA. The text provides no indication that 5G is based on CDMA technology.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 349 in PDF)

116 / 156

What does the 802.1Q trunking protocol do?

A. It deals with routing between VLANs

B. It appends a VLAN tag to frames as they pass between switches

C. It manages the IP addresses for devices on the network

D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.1Q trunking protocol append a VLAN tag to frames as they are switched between network switches. This allows the information about the VLAN membership of the frame to be carried over the network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 322 in PDF)

117 / 156

What is a Service Set Identifier (SSID) in wireless networking?

A. It is the physical connection between wireless devices.

B. It is the type of frequency used to establish wireless connections.

C. It is the access point that facilitates wireless communications.

D. It is the friendly network name seen by users when they join a wireless network.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the context of wireless networking, the Service Set Identifier (SSID) is essentially the friendly network name that users will see when they join a network or check the status of an already joined network. Apart from that, to the wireless devices, SSID identifies a set of wireless services either between two clients or between a client and an access point.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 339 in PDF)

118 / 156

What happens to the switch with the higher cost in STP operations?

A. Its port is put into a root mode

B. Its port is put into a forwarding mode

C. Its port is put into a blocking mode

D. Its port is disconnected

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In a Spanning Tree Protocol operation, once the root bridge is selected and all of its ports are put into forwarding mode, any redundant link is evaluated. The switch with the lower cost will have its port put into forwarding mode, while the switch with the higher cost will have its port put into a blocking mode. This blocks redundant links and helps avoid switching loops.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 315 in PDF)

119 / 156

What are the three basic functions of MAC address?

A. Learning, forward filtering, and encryption

B. Learning, backward filtering, and loop avoidance

C. Learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance

D. Learning, forward filtering, and routing

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The three basic functions of MAC address performed by a switch are learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 311 in PDF)

120 / 156

What is a significant weakness of using a shared passphrase with the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) standard?

A. It has a high administrative burden

B. It requires an agent to be installed on devices

C. It can easily be cracked with tools

D. It requires geofencing to be effective

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: WEP uses a shared passphrase for 64- or 128-bit encryption, however, this passphrase can easily be cracked with specific tools such as Aircrack-NG, making it a weaker form of security.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 347 in PDF)

121 / 156

Which frequency allows for higher speed in a wireless system?

A. 2.4 GHz

B. 5.0 GHz

C. 1.3 GHz

D. 90 GHz

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text indicates that speeds will always be higher on a 5 GHz wireless, such as the 802.11 a/n/ac standards. This is because these standards can utilize a maximum of 25 non-overlapping channels, as opposed to the 2.4 GHz band used by 802.11 b/g/n standards, which can only use three non-overlapping channels.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 333 in PDF)

122 / 156

What is the maximum hop count in EIGRP?

A. 255

B. 100

C. 50

D. 500

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) supports a maximum hop count of 255, making it a suitable option for large network systems.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 300 in PDF)

123 / 156

Which frequencies are governed by the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band?

A. 2.4 GHz

B. 6 GHz

C. 5 GHz

D. All of the above

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 5 GHz frequencies used with WLANs are governed by the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band. This is specifically mentioned in the text provided.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 332 in PDF)

124 / 156

What is the primary use of a preshared key (PSK) in network security?

A. It is mainly used with MAC address filtering

B. It is primarily used with the wireless protocols WPA and WPA2 personal mode

C. It is predominantly used with Geofencing

D. It is extensively used in EAP-TLS deployments

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: A preshared key (PSK) is widely used with the wireless protocols WPA and WPA2 personal mode for home wireless applications. It is a symmetrical encryption, where the key that encrypts the data also decrypts the data.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 347 in PDF)

125 / 156

What does the Bridge ID in the Spanning Tree Protocol represent?

A. The cost of the port leading to the root bridge

B. The calculation based on the lowest MAC address on the switch and the priority

C. The speed of the network’s link

D. The port that leads to the root bridge on an adjacent switch

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Bridge ID in the Spanning Tree Protocol represents the calculation of the lowest MAC address on the switch and its priority. It does not represent the cost of a port, the speed of a network link, or the port leading to the root bridge.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 315 in PDF)

126 / 156

What is the purpose of Phase 2 in the EAP-FAST protocol?

A. It creates a shared secret for use in Phase 1

B. It establishes a secure tunnel for data transmission

C. It allows authentication to occur between the supplicant and authentication server

D. It replaces the older Cisco proprietary protocol of LEAP

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Phase 2 of the EAP-FAST protocol is where authentication occurs between the supplicant and the authentication server.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 346 in PDF)

127 / 156

What is a major drawback of using a wireless range extender?

A. It decreases the network security

B. It reduces the bandwidth by 50 percent

C. It requires complex configurations

D. It cannot rebroadcast the SSID

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The major drawback of a wireless range extender is that it reduces the bandwidth by 50 percent as all network communications now must travel two wireless signals to reach the wired network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 269 in PDF)

128 / 156

What is the purpose of MAC filtering in wireless network systems?

A. It is used to control mobile devices by their location.

B. It is used to provide only whitelisted MAC addresses access to the wireless system.

C. It is used to provide 64- or 128-bit encryption via the shared passphrase.

D. It is used to transmit the credentials over TLS.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: MAC address filtering is used in wireless network systems to secure the network by providing access only to whitelisted MAC addresses. This prevents unauthorized devices from accessing the network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 347 in PDF)

129 / 156

What is the function of Class of Service (CoS) within the layer 2 802.1Q frame?

A. CoS is used to calculate the speed of data transfer between switches on 802.1Q trunk links.

B. CoS is used to dictate the security protocols between switches on 802.1Q trunk links.

C. CoS is used for the prioritization of traffic between switches on 802.1Q trunk links.

D. CoS is used to determine the storage capacity of switches on 802.1Q trunk links.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Class of Service (CoS) is utilized to prioritize traffic between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. It helps determine which data should be processed first based on its priority level.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 305 in PDF)

130 / 156

What is the best method to handle collisions in a network?

A. Replace all switches with hubs

B. Segregate the network into different broadcast domains

C. Increase the bandwidth capacity

D. Replace all hubs with switches and ensure full-duplex Ethernet connectivity

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Replacing all hubs with switches and ensuring full-duplex Ethernet connectivity is the most effective method to handle collisions in a network. Switches put each node in its own collision domain regardless of half-duplex or full-duplex operation. Full-duplex communications, which can only be achieved with switches, reserve a pair of wires for transmit and a pair of wires for receive, ensuring that collisions will not occur.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 307 in PDF)

131 / 156

What is the main difference between a traditional refrigerator and a smart refrigerator in terms of IoT features?

A. A smart refrigerator stores food products.

B. A smart refrigerator has a touchscreen resembling a giant smartphone.

C. A smart refrigerator has an Android operating system.

D. A smart refrigerator uses wireless technology.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The main difference between a traditional refrigerator and a smart refrigerator in terms of IoT features is that a smart refrigerator includes a touchscreen interface that resembles a giant smartphone. This screen is accessible via applications that allow the user to view pictures, weather conditions, messages, shopping lists, etc.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 290 in PDF)

132 / 156

What is the purpose of a virtual phone in a VoIP system?

A. To replace physical phones entirely

B. To allow one device to handle multiple calls at once

C. To create a hybrid of physical and soft phones that maintains privacy

D. To allow transfer and merging of calls

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Virtual phones in VoIP systems act as hybrids between physical and soft phones, allowing functionality across multiple devices, and ensuring privacy by providing the caller with only the virtual number rather than the personal numbers of the worker. These solutions typically allow the caller to see only the virtual number they dialed, protecting the worker’s personal contact information.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 279 in PDF)

133 / 156

Which layers of the OSI model can QoS be achieved at?

A. Layer 3 and Layer 2

B. Layer 5 and Layer 6

C. Layer 4 and Layer 5

D. Layer 1 and Layer 4

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Quality of Service (QoS) can be achieved at Layer 3 (Network Layer) and Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 304 in PDF)

134 / 156

What is a key difference between WPA and WPA2?

A. WPA uses 256-bit keys while WPA2 uses 64-bit keys

B. WPA uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm while WPA2 uses the RC4 algorithm

C. WPA operates in two modes of preshared key and enterprise mode while WPA2 operates only in preshared key mode.

D. WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) using RC4 algorithm, whereas WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) which uses the RC4 algorithm. In comparison, WPA2 uses the more secure Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 344 in PDF)

135 / 156

Which legacy cellular network protocol that provided 2G network services has been incorporated into GSM cellular network protocols?

A. CDMA

B. GSM

C. TDMA

D. Edge

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In the text, it is stated that Time-division multiple access (TDMA), a legacy cellular network protocol, provided 2G network services and has been incorporated into GSM cellular network protocols.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 348 in PDF)

136 / 156

What vital function do routers perform in network architecture?

A. They perform address learning and forwarding decisions based on MAC address

B. They bridge traffic via the operating system

C. They segment broadcast domains

D. They extend the wireless network to the Ethernet network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Routers play a critical role in segmenting broadcast domains, which define the boundary within which a network broadcast message can be heard. This functionality is fundamental to controlling network traffic and ensuring efficient data packet delivery.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 264 in PDF)

137 / 156

What is default routing primarily useful for in a network setup?

A. Networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface

B. Networks that require regular administrative intervention

C. Small networks with almost no change

D. Networks that need to automate the trading of routing tables or entries with the use of routing protocols

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Default routing is primarily beneficial in stub networks where all destinations are reachable through a specific gateway or interface. All packets not matched in the routing table are passed to the default gateway (also known as the gateway of last resort), which then routes the packets to their appropriate destinations.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 296 in PDF)

138 / 156

What are some of the disadvantage of ad hoc wireless networks compared to infrastructure mode?

A. They cannot support peer-to-peer network connections

B. The maximum distance between two devices can exceed 200 feet

C. Usually only two devices can be connected together

D. The service can’t span multiple access points

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: In ad hoc mode, both clients must arbitrate the request-to-send and clear-to-send (RTS/CTS) signaling, which limits the connection to usually two devices only. It’s also highlighted that the distance at which two devices can communicate is normally less than 100 feet due to the client’s lower transmitting power and smaller antenna size.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 339 in PDF)

139 / 156

What is the function of POTS modems in network architecture?

A. They are used to encode data over cable lines for broadband Internet connectivity.

B. They are primarily found in modern network systems for high-speed data transmission.

C. They are used to encode data over telephone lines as audible screeches and can be used as an out-of-band connectivity method for routers or switches.

D. They are used to modulate data onto a POTS line to the phone company’s central office at a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: POTS modems are considered legacy devices and function by encoding data over telephone lines as audible screeches of chirps and hisses. Although not common in modern network systems, network administrators may use them in out-of-band connectivity methods for routing or switching devices.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 272 in PDF)

140 / 156

What is a notable characteristic of Non-Root Bridges in the context of Spanning Tree Protocol?

A. They have the lowest MAC address on the switch

B. They are where the servers are usually located

C. They participate in STP by exchanging Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs)

D. They have the highest bridge priority

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text states that Non-Root Bridges participate in Spanning Tree Protocol by exchanging Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). This is a key part of how they interact with the network and contribute to the functioning of the STP.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 315 in PDF)

141 / 156

Which of the following features was introduced with the 802.11n wireless standard?

A. Maximum speed of 600 Mbps

B. Utilizing the 5 GHz frequencies in the U-NII radio band

C. Backward compatibility with 802.11g

D. All of the above

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The 802.11n wireless standard introduced a wide variety of features such as a maximum speed of 600 Mbps, utilizing the 5 GHz frequencies in the U-NII radio band, and backward compatibility with 802.11g.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 330 in PDF)

142 / 156

What is the purpose of using Cellular connectivity methods?

A. It excels in providing constant stream of data

B. It is typically used for connecting businesses to the Internet

C. It excels in providing mobility for workers with a laptop and cell card

D. It is used in remote areas that need constant data stream

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Cellular connectivity methods excel in providing mobility for workers with a laptop and cell card. This is advantageous because it allows workers to remain connected to the internet even when they’re away from their typical work locations. They also are used in remote locations that don’t require a constant data stream.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 348 in PDF)

143 / 156

Which of the following statements accurately describes the standards for Power over Ethernet (PoE)?

A. PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 25.5 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras.

B. PoE+ (802.3at) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power.

C. PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras.

D. PoE+ (802.3at) is sometimes required for the latest wireless standards on WAPs that require less power than PoE (802.3af).

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: This is correct because the text states that ’The PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras.’

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 327 in PDF)

144 / 156

Which component of an HVAC system controls the on/off functions and related controls?

A. HVAC Control Application

B. HVAC Control Server

C. HVAC Control Panel

D. Control Points

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Control points are any devices in the HVAC system that need to be turned on or off or controlled in some fashion. The control point will be connected to the HVAC control panel with a daisy-chained line running a serial protocol.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 289 in PDF)

145 / 156

What are the common actions that are triggered when firewall conditions are met?

A. Permit traffic, block traffic, and log traffic

B. Create traffic, encrypt traffic, and disable network

C. Initiate VPN, set up WPA2, and block SSL

D. Allow cookies, decode URL, and deny ICMP Ping

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: When conditions in a firewall are met, actions are triggered. The most common actions include permitting traffic (allowing it to pass through), blocking traffic (stopping it), and logging traffic (recording details of it for later analysis). These actions are part of the basic functionality of firewalls and provide control over traffic flow and security.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 276 in PDF)

146 / 156

What does a router use to make routing decisions?

A. The destination host

B. The source IP address

C. The TTL value

D. The destination network

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Routers base all routing decisions on the destination network, not the host or source IP. The router looks at the destination IP address, calculates the network it belongs to, and then refers to its internal routing table to decide which interface to send the packet out.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 294 in PDF)

147 / 156

What is the main purpose of port aggregation?

A. To reduce the size of data frames

B. To increase bandwidth between switches

C. To decrease latency in networks

D. To simplify switch configurations

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: Port aggregation is a mechanism for aggregating (combining) multiple ports together to increase the bandwidth between switches. You can combine multiple links, such as 1 Gbps connections, to provide higher bandwidth, such as 2 Gbps.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 326 in PDF)

148 / 156

What is the main challenges associated with channel bonding?

A. Bonding doesn’t increase the throughput

B. The number of non-overlapping channels diminishes

C. Bonding cannot be done with 2.4 GHz radio band

D. The complexity of your design decreases

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: One of the main challenges with channel bonding is that the number of non-overlapping channels decreases. This could limit the success and throughput of your network design.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 334 in PDF)

149 / 156

What are the three basic functions of a switch related to the MAC address?

A. MAC address learning, backward filtering, and loop acceleration

B. MAC address learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance

C. MAC address detection, forward propagating, and loop recreation

D. MAC address amplification, forward projection, and loop bypassing

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text discusses three basic functions a switch performs related to the MAC address: MAC address learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance. MAC address learning occurs when the switch learns and stores the MAC address on the port it was received. Forward filtering corresponds to the switch deciding on the destination port based on the MAC address table. Loop avoidance is a high-end feature of more expensive switches that prevents the creation of network loops.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 311 in PDF)

150 / 156

Which among the following is a key difference between network devices and networked devices?

A. Network devices are used to connect networked devices.

B. Networked devices are used to connect network devices.

C. Network devices and networked devices have the same function.

D. Networked devices are not necessary for creating a network.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The key difference between network devices and networked devices is that network devices are used to connect networked devices. As an example mentioned in the passage, a switch (network device) is used to connect a VoIP phone (networked device). This fundamental understanding is crucial when creating a network.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 260 in PDF)

151 / 156

In the context of industrial control systems, which characteristic of a Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) distinguishes it from a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC)?

A. An RTU has inputs and outputs just like a PLC

B. RTUs use ladder logic programming like PLCs

C. The RTU has an independent microprocessor and remote control capabilities

D. An RTU performs functions autonomously like a PLC

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: One major characteristic of an RTU that sets it apart from a PLC is that the RTU has an independent microprocessor. This allows it to be installed at a remote facility and programmed for remote control capabilities. Therefore, unlike PLCs, RTUs can operate independently and manage the production from a distance.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 292 in PDF)

152 / 156

What is the function of HVAC Control Server in an HVAC system?

A. To set work schedules and adjust temperatures

B. To act as an intermediate layer managing the HVAC control panels

C. To act upon the command from serial line

D. To directly monitor and troubleshoot the HVAC system

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The HVAC control server manages all the various HVAC control panels. It also acts as a logging mechanism, thus allowing a technician to understand what went wrong if the HVAC system fails to maintain the desired temperature in a particular room.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 288 in PDF)

153 / 156

In the context of wireless network security, what is the role of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?

A. It encrypts the data being transmitted over the network

B. It allows supplicants and authenticators to use various methods of encryption for authentication

C. It organizes data into packets for transmission over the network

D. It is the method by which data integrity checks are conducted

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: EAP or Extensible Authentication Protocol is an IETF standard that enables supplicants and authenticators to use different forms of encryption for authentication purposes across an 802.1x network. It doesn’t do the actual encryption of data (that is typically done by protocols like WPA2), nor does it organize data into packets or conduct data integrity checks. Its role is solely focused on facilitating the authentication process in a flexible, extensible way.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 345 in PDF)

154 / 156

What is the main purpose of using MIMO technology in wireless devices?

A. To degrade the overall signal quality

B. To share time between various clients

C. To use multipath transmissions to increase overall signal quality

D. To transmit signals in open spaces

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: MIMO technology allows for wireless devices to transmit and receive the same signal across multiple antennas, which are then compared and combined to bolster the overall signal quality. This method utilizes multipath transmissions, where the signal bounces off reflective surfaces and reaches the destination through various paths.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 336 in PDF)

155 / 156

Which of the following statements is true about wireless system installation based on the text?

A. Indoor wireless communications are more effective than outdoor because of lesser obstructions.

B. The 802.11 b/g/n standards provide the highest wireless speeds.

C. Wireless signals are only affected by backscatter and absorption.

D. As client station moves away from the wireless access point, the speed is automatically reduced.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The text states that as the client station moves further away from the wireless access point, the speed is automatically reduced for a minimized error rate and maximum throughput.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 333 in PDF)

156 / 156

What is the function of an Access Control Server (ACS) in an access control system?

A. Acts as the bridge between the Ethernet and low-voltage networks.

B. Produces audit reports showing access attempts at various control points.

C. Creates an entry describing a user’s access for various control points when a user is enrolled.

D. Operates as a giant magnet that keeps the door locked when energized.

Incorrect

Correct!

Explanation: The Access Control Server (ACS) is a key component of an access control system, its primary function being to manage the access rights of users. When a user is enrolled in the system, an entry is created within the ACS that details what control points the user can access. The ACS can then manage these access permissions by either responding to requests from the access control panel or downloading its database to all the panels.

Ref: CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

(Page 285 in PDF)

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