Network+ N10-008 - 3.0 Network Operations

Ref:📕CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition

Network+ N10-008 – 3.0 Network Operations

1 / 120

What happens when an interface receives a frame larger than the configured maximum transmission unit (MTU)?

A. The frame is automatically resized to fit the MTU.

B. The giant frame counter will decrement.

C. The giant frame counter will increment.

D. The frame is automatically discarded.

2 / 120

Why is a centralized logging server seen as the best approach for logging network events?

A. Because it allows for easier auditing of security breaches

B. It reduces the risk of log files being inaccessible in the event of device failure

C. It makes post-mortem analysis more efficient

D. It allows for the logs to be stored on very large disks

3 / 120

What is the purpose of the ’Actions Taken’ element in a network incident document?

A. It lists all services and business units affected by the incident.

B. It documents the steps taken to identify and rectify the incident.

C. It provides the ultimate reason the incident occurred.

D. It provides steps to be taken to avoid future such incidents.

4 / 120

What is the role of an NMS in calculating uptime and downtime in a network?

A. It ensures that the NMS itself remains operational.

B. It counts the number of tries it takes to access a downed service.

C. It keeps track of how long each service in the network has been up and responding to requests, and how long they have been down.

D. It calculates the average response time of each service in the network.

5 / 120

What triggers a Wet Pipe System to release water for fire suppression?

A. Detection of smoke

B. Temperature exceeds 165 degrees Fahrenheit

C. A pressure drop occurs

D. When a glass capsule, containing a glycerin-based liquid, expands and breaks due to heat between 135 to 165 degrees Fahrenheit

6 / 120

What are the consequences of using an incremental backup method?

A. It can speed up backups, but can also create a longer RTO

B. It always requires a shorter RTO compared to differential backups

C. It will create larger backups until a full backup is completed

D. It can only backup all the files regardless of their modifications

7 / 120

What is a common cause of encapsulation errors when configuring a network interface?

A. Configuring an access link as a trunk

B. Misconfiguration of Ethernet encapsulation

C. Setting up a wide area network (WAN) with Infra Switch Link (ISL)

D. Running High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) over Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)

8 / 120

Which of the following is NOT a function of the NetFlow protocol based on the given text?

A. It updates the NetFlow cache in the router

B. It discovers network topology from traffic patterns

C. It designs the network topology for optimal performance

D. It identifies high bandwidth utilization culprits

9 / 120

What is the most common cause of failure in network device components?

A. Dust accumulation

B. Power surge

C. High temperature

D. Poor airflow

10 / 120

Which of the following accurately describes the different types of dual-power supplies?

A. Active/passive, load balancing, and load-shifting

B. Active/active, load balancing, and load-shifting

C. Active/passive, load shifting, and load-sharing

D. Active/active, load-shifting, and load-sharing

11 / 120

What is the main objective of the Penetration test as mentioned in an audit and assessment report?

A. To test the physical security of an organization

B. To penetrate the network via network or social engineering

C. To prepare the system for a regulatory assessment

D. To assure compliance with Cybersecurity Risk Assessment

12 / 120

What is the primary purpose of snapshots as described in the text?

A. To allow users to restore their own files up to the last 64 snapshots.

B. To backup all the files at a precise time when the snapshot is taken.

C. To archive files and folders to a protected portion of the operating system.

D. All of the above

13 / 120

What do the statuses ’up’ and ’line protocol is up’ mean in the output of the show interface command on a network switch?

A. The switch is on and the physical layer connection is inactive

B. The physical layer connectivity and the data link connectivity for the connection are both active

C. The interface is disabled due to an administrative action

D. The interface is having an error

14 / 120

What is one solution for mitigating the issue of Internet connection loss according to the text?

A. Employing an additional ISP to create diverse paths.

B. Creating a backup connection to a single upstream provider.

C. Relying entirely on ISP’s responsibility to keep the internet connection working.

D. Using the same path as highly used data centers such as Google, Amazon, and Microsoft.

15 / 120

In context of backups, what does a differential backup do?

A. It copies all files without resetting the archive bit.

B. It copies only the files that were created and modified from the last full or prior incremental backup.

C. It creates a gradually smaller backup until a full backup is completed and the archive bits are reset again.

D. It copies all the files with the archive bit set and resets the archive bit after it is done.

16 / 120

What is the importance of the ’Remediation’ section in a network incident document?

A. It helps identify the root cause of the incident.

B. It describes the ultimate fix that will repair the root cause of the incident.

C. It includes the date and time of the incident.

D. It documents the actions taken during an incident.

17 / 120

What is an electrical sag in network equipment?

A. An event when the line voltage increases over the nominal operating voltage

B. An exception when the line voltage dips below the nominal operating voltage

C. A condition when power supply is interrupted completely

D. A phenomenon when the line voltage remains stagnant at 90 percent of the voltage specification

18 / 120

What is one advantage and one disadvantage of logging for authorization in an organization’s network system?

A. Advantage – Identifies who accessed the system; Disadvantage – Generates a small amount of data

B. Advantage – Identifies what a user is accessing; Disadvantage – Creates a massive amount of data

C. Advantage – Identifies failed attempts; Disadvantage – Creates minimal data

D. Advantage – Identifies successful logins; Disadvantage – Does not create a log entry

19 / 120

What is a characteristic of a cold site for disaster recovery?

A. It is a fully equipped site ready for immediate use

B. It is a site with minimal equipment that requires some setup

C. It is a site without equipment, which will need to be bought and configured after a disaster

D. It is a site used for storing data backups

20 / 120

What does a full backup specifically entail?

A. It backs up only the files that have been created or modified since the last backup.

B. It backs up all the files in the dataset, regardless of when they were last modified.

C. It can backup a gradually larger set of data until a full backup is completed.

D. It copies all files with the archive bit set and does not reset the bit after doing so.

21 / 120

What port does the Syslog protocol operate on?

A. UDP port 500

B. UDP port 514

C. UDP port 450

D. UDP port 600

22 / 120

In the context of a maintenance contract for a fault-tolerant system, what does the acronym ’MTTR’ specifically refer to?

A. Mean Time To Reset

B. Mean Time To Restore

C. Mean Time To Repair

D. Mean Time To Replace

23 / 120

According to the text, what should a disaster recovery plan ideally outline?

A. The organization’s overall financial strategy

B. The responsibilities of each individual personnel, processes and procedures involved, the systems that are involved in the recovery effort, the Recover Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

C. An extensive list of all potential disasters

D. The daily operations of the organization

24 / 120

What causes CRC errors in network communication?

A. Incorrect subnet mask

B. Failed FCS checks

C. Insufficient bandwidth

D. NAT translation errors

25 / 120

What is the purpose of a security policy for an organization?

A. To outline the salary structure of the organization

B. To detail the social media policies of the organization

C. To bring all security-related details under one enforceable policy

D. To list all the employees in the organization

26 / 120

What does an SNMP set command do in a network?

A. Allows a variable to be set on the device or operating system

B. Sends alerts and notifications when device threshold is exceeded

C. Requests OS or network device for an object ID (OID) value

D. Collects statistics such as bandwidth, memory, and CPU from devices

27 / 120

Which one of the following considerations is important when implementing firewalls for high availability using FHRPs?

A. Both firewalls must be from the same manufacturer

B. Both firewalls must support a specific FHRP

C. The provider must support FHRPs for redundancy of inbound traffic

D. Both firewalls must be wired to the same physical switch

28 / 120

Why is multipathing used in a storage area network?

A. To provide redundant paths between servers and the storage unit

B. To increase the speed of data transfer between servers and the storage unit

C. To encrypt data being transmitted between servers and the storage unit

D. To decrease the amount of storage space needed on servers

29 / 120

What information would a network log typically classify as a session-based traffic log?

A. Entries that identify attacks or malicious activities

B. The top-talkers being identified

C. The start and end of a particular session or transmission on the network

D. Logs that are exceptions to access control list (ACL) rules

30 / 120

What is one potential purpose of configuring Network Interface Card (NIC) teaming?

A. To make multiple NICs function independently

B. To hide the server from the network

C. To allow multiple NICs to function together for aggregation of bandwidth or redundancy of connections

D. To reduce the bandwidth of the NICs

31 / 120

Which stage of the IT system life cycle usually involves tasks such as imaging, configuring, or installing software?

A. Purchasing

B. Deploying

C. Managing

D. Retiring

32 / 120

What does the Recover Point Objective (RPO) in a disaster recovery plan refer to?

A. The list of personnel responsible for disaster recovery

B. The time it will take to recover from the disaster

C. The point in time to which the organization can be recovered

D. The collection of key network information in hard copy form

33 / 120

Which of the following best describes the Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)?

A. It is a legal agreement between three or more parties.

B. It is used when parties want to slow the process down by creating a new formal legal agreement.

C. It serves as an amendment to an already established agreement.

D. It is drafted only when there is no established agreement between parties.

34 / 120

What layers of the OSI model do interface errors usually relate to?

A. Layer 3 (Network) and Layer 4 (Transport)

B. Layer 5 (Session) and Layer 6 (Presentation)

C. Layer 2 (Data Link) and Layer 3 (Network)

D. Layer 2 (Data Link) and Layer 1 (Physical)

35 / 120

Which of the following options is NOT part of a common network incident document as identified in the given text?

A. Summary

B. Root Cause

C. Reported Incident Time

D. Backups Taken

36 / 120

What are the common types of traffic logs as described in the text?

A. Overview, Risk-based, and Path logs

B. Filter, Mask, and Break logs

C. Overview, Session, and Exception logs

D. Parameter, Flow, and Control logs

37 / 120

What should be taken into consideration when developing a password policy for an organization?

A. The popularity of the user’s favorite sports team

B. The frequency of employee lunch breaks

C. The sensitivity of information the users handle

D. The location of the organization’s headquarters

38 / 120

Which statement best describes the Dry Pipe System for fire suppression in a facility?

A. It does not use water but instead uses a clean agent.

B. It constantly charges its pipes with water from a holding tank or city water supply.

C. Initially the pipes are charged with air or nitrogen, and only releases water when a pressure drop due to heating occurs.

D. It is identical to the Preaction system without any additional mechanism.

39 / 120

Which concept is defined as creating multiple instances of a data center in different locations to minimize the impact of a catastrophic event?

A. Facility Redundancy

B. Redundancy within the host

C. Redundancy within the rack

D. Business Continuity

40 / 120

What does the term ’Recovery Time Objective (RTO)’ imply in a disaster recovery plan?

A. It is the time it will take to recover from the disaster

B. It is the point in time to which you can recover the organization

C. It indicates the responsibilities of personnel during a disaster

D. It refers to all the system involved in the recovery effort

41 / 120

What is the impact of a latency of 125 ms or more when dealing with real-time protocols such as Voice over IP (VoIP)?

A. It greatly enhances the audio quality

B. It creates an echo

C. It causes data loss

D. It triggers the use of network address translation (NAT)

42 / 120

What does the severity level in Syslog protocol/service indicate?

A. The number of logs that will be produced

B. The index for each unique log.

C. The moment when the system became unusable.

D. The criticality level of the events being logged.

43 / 120

What is the purpose of Object Identifiers (OIDs) in SNMP?

A. They serve as a method of encryption.

B. They are unique objects on a device that can be queried or configured.

C. They are the default community names for SNMP.

D. They are used to set up user accounts.

44 / 120

What is the key difference between a power spike and a power surge?

A. A power surge can be tens of thousands of volts

B. A power surge lasts over 3 nanoseconds

C. A power spike lasts 1 to 2 nanoseconds

D. A power spike dips below the nominal operating voltage

45 / 120

According to the text, why is it necessary to define and compare metrics when managing performance and troubleshooting?

A. To have a measure of success

B. To subjectively evaluate the problem

C. To ensure that problems persist

D. To decrease the effectiveness

46 / 120

Why is it necessary to back up network device configurations?

A. Because the configurations are usually unique and could be lost due to various issues.

B. Because it is mandatory according to the IT regulations.

C. Because backups can speed up the device.

D. Because backups can prevent the device from being hacked.

47 / 120

What is the main responsibility of the IT department in an organization when an employee is leaving?

A. Coordinate with the HR department to arrange an exit interview

B. Find a replacement for the departing employee

C. Make sure the user is not connected to the IT systems remotely and disable the user’s account

D. Transfer the departing employee to a different department

48 / 120

If a network device fails due to running out of space and can’t store any more data, which metric would have been valuable for preventing this problem?

A. CPU Utilization

B. Temperature

C. Memory

D. Storage

49 / 120

What role does the Mobile Device Management (MDM) software play in a BYOD policy?

A. It dictates the requirements for the BYOD policy.

B. It replaces the need for a BYOD policy.

C. It backs up all data on the device.

D. It allows devices to bypass security measures when connecting to the organization’s network.

50 / 120

What is the role of RAM in a network device’s operation?

A. Long-term data storage

B. Loading of switch’s operating system

C. Temporary storage for CPU’s data and instructions

D. Monitoring and control of CPU utilization

51 / 120

What is the significance of identifying the root cause in a network incident document?

A. To facilitate discussions with external stakeholders

B. To guarantee immediate restoration of services

C. To prevent the same incident from recurring

D. To determine the business units affected

52 / 120

What is one of the most important elements in a network incident document?

A. The date and time of the incident

B. The lunch menu of the day

C. The number of cups of coffee consumed by the technician

D. The weather forecast for the following day

53 / 120

Which type of fire suppression system is often used in data centers because it does not damage equipment?

A. Wet Pipe System

B. Dry Pipe System

C. Deluge Systems

D. Clean Agent

54 / 120

Which device metric can indicate that there is overutilization of an internal resource like the CPU?

A. Overheating

B. Network traffic

C. Storage capacity

D. ASIC chip count

55 / 120

Why is the floor plan important in a data center?

A. It can help locate networking assets

B. It helps plan for environmental factors such as temperature and humidity

C. It helps new employees get acclimated with the organization’s equipment

D. All of the above

56 / 120

Which statement about Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is correct?

A. VRRP is a Cisco proprietary protocol

B. VRRP allows multiple routers to answer to ARP requests simultaneously

C. VRRP is an open standard First-Hop Redundancy Protocol

D. VRRP doesn’t allow for active/passive configuration

57 / 120

Which of the following statement correctly describe the functions of SNMP and its components?

A. SNMP operates on TCP ports 161 and 162 for all commands

B. A SNMP get command allows a variable to be set on the device or operating system

C. An SNMP agent is responsible for collecting values for specific counters and presenting them upon request

D. Network Management Systems (NMS) are responsible only for storing counters in a database with no thresholds or alerts set

58 / 120

What is the purpose of a site survey report in relation to a wireless network?

A. To document outdated equipment in the network

B. To establish a proper coverage after wireless equipment purchase and to guide future adjustments

C. To provide a heat map of electricity usage in the site

D. To compile a list of employees who are using the wireless network

59 / 120

What is the main function of Power Distribution Units (PDUs) in a data center?

A. To cool down the servers

B. To supply power in a dual-power supply configuration

C. To act as a secondary server

D. To regulate internet connectivity

60 / 120

Which PowerShell command can be used to gather detailed statistics about a network connection in Windows?

A. Get-NetDetails

B. Get-NetAdapterStatistics

C. Get-ConnectionInfo

D. Gather-ConnectionStats

61 / 120

What is the main function of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in creating high network availability?

A. It broadcasts duplicate frames

B. It forwards frames across the redundant link following a failure

C. It increases broadcast storms

D. It block purchases of redundant switches

62 / 120

What does an incident response plan primarily focus on?

A. The priority of the incident, communication, and lessons learned

B. The time it takes for the incident to occur

C. The procedures for preventing incidents

D. The type of equipment being used

63 / 120

What is jitter in relation to network protocols and applications?

A. The consistent latency of packets

B. The variation of latency from packet to packet

C. The speed of packet transmission

D. The process of calculating the difference of latency between packets

64 / 120

What characterizes a warm site in disaster recovery?

A. It’s a networked space used after disaster without any available equipment.

B. It’s a site with all equipment ready and no need for manual intervention.

C. It’s a site with some network equipment essential to resuming operations, requiring minimal effort but still requiring manual intervention.

D. It’s the cheapest recovery plan due to lack of pre-purchased equipment.

65 / 120

What is the purpose of the ’Services Impacted’ section in a network incident document?

A. It provides a brief summary of what occurred during the incident

B. It details the next steps to take to remediate the issue

C. It details all the network systems and business units affected during the incident

D. It specifies the date and time of the incident

66 / 120

What does a txload value of 25 indicate in the context of send/receive traffic?

A. The connection speed is being used to transmit data at its maximum capacity.

B. 1/4 of the connection speed is being used to transmit data.

C. 1/10 of the connection speed is being used to transmit data.

D. The connection speed is being used to transmit data at half its capacity.

67 / 120

What additional safety measure does the preaction system, a type of fire suppression system, employ?

A. The system uses a clean agent to displace oxygen.

B. The system is constantly charged with water.

C. The system does not contain a valve in the sprinkler head.

D. The system employs an independent thermal link that pre-charges the system with water.

68 / 120

What does the term ’MTBF’ stand for, and how is it typically used?

A. Mean Time Before Failure, a measurement of how long before a component is expected to fail.

B. Mean Time Between Failures, an estimate of a component’s lifespan based on specific workloads.

C. Mean Time Before Failure, an average time it takes for a vendor to repair a system.

D. Mean Time Between Failures, a measurement of delay between two consecutive failures in a communication network.

69 / 120

What method of authentication does SNMP version 3 primarily use?

A. Community names

B. 64-bit counters

C. OID

D. User accounts and SNMP view

70 / 120

What is the main difference between a logical diagram and a physical diagram in network documentation?

A. A logical diagram details how a network system works, while a physical diagram details why it operates

B. A logical diagram details why a network system works, while a physical diagram details how it operates

C. A logical diagram shows a network’s physical connections, while a physical diagram shows information flow

D. A logical diagram must be exclusively logical, while a physical diagram can also be logical

71 / 120

Why is the ’Date and Time’ an important component of a network incident document?

A. It describes the severity of the incident

B. It allows you to distinguish between various incidents that could occur on the same day

C. It defines the ultimate reason the incident occurred

D. It details the next steps to take to remediate the issue

72 / 120

What is the main purpose of load balancing according to the provided text?

A. To increase the CPU utilization of web servers

B. To balance requests to an incoming service across several servers

C. To enable the Microsoft operating system

D. To implement the HAProxy Linux open-source solution

73 / 120

What is the purpose of a performance baseline in network troubleshooting?

A. It provides a record of typical network activity

B. It confirms that a performance problem has been resolved

C. It serves as documentation for network configuration

D. A and B

74 / 120

Why should the fiber-optic cables running from the MDF to the IDF closets be documented extensively?

A. Because they are expensive and can be a potential target for theft

B. Because their other end can be a great deal of distance away

C. Because they are often re-numbered and reconfigured

D. Because they can potentially disrupt the function of other network equipment

75 / 120

What is the primary difference between a power ’spike’ and a power ’surge’?

A. A power spike involves a voltage increase, while a power surge does not.

B. A power surge lasts over three nanoseconds, while a power spike only lasts one to two nanoseconds.

C. Power spikes can be avoided using UPS systems, while surges cannot.

D. Power spikes are caused by dips in the voltage below nominal operating voltage.

76 / 120

What is the purpose of an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) in an organization?

A. To define the official email signature for all employees

B. To specify the commercial benefit of the organization’s services

C. To mitigate employee abuse of company resources

D. To define the dress code for IT department

77 / 120

What are some of the steps to harden a network according to the information given?

A. Changing the default password and installing the latest updates

B. Encouraging users to browse the internet freely

C. Allowing all users to have administrator rights

D. Not updating security protocols

78 / 120

Why is it best practice to statically set the speed and duplex on important connections, such as your Internet router?

A. To enable the port to renegotiate automatically at less desirable settings

B. To allow speed and duplex to set automatically as per requirement

C. To avoid having a speed or duplex mismatch

D. To make sure the switchport always operates at maximum speed

79 / 120

Which of the following correctly describes the role of a soft control in an organization’s remote access policy?

A. It is configured in Microsoft Windows Server for VPN access.

B. It is implemented by network administrators via hard controls.

C. It defines who has access and why, in relation to their job duties.

D. It is administered via the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS).

80 / 120

Which of the following best describes the Clean Agent fire suppression system?

A. It uses a mixture of nitrogen, argon, and CO2 or a mixture of those gases.

B. This system uses a small glass capsule that contains a glycerin-based liquid to close the sprinkler head.

C. The system will not dump water unless the thermal link is tripped by smoke or fire.

D. It uses water and does not initially contain water, but charged with air or nitrogen.

81 / 120

What is the purpose of a change rollback plan in change management documentation?

A. To detail the changes to the configuration

B. To document why the primary plan will succeed.

C. To describe the steps to roll back from a failed primary plan.

D. To document the estimated duration of the change process.

82 / 120

What are the main components that a disaster recovery plan should outline?

A. Responsibilities of Personnel, Processes and Procedures, Systems Involved in Recovery, Recover Point Objective, Recovery Time Objective

B. Immediate Response Actions, Stock Inventory, Staffing Timeline, Hiring Criteria, Employee Perks

C. Casualties, Recovery Medicine, Emergency Contacts, Patient Transfer Process

D. Log entries, Asset Management, Budget Planning, Risk Assessment

83 / 120

What describes the operation of Deluge Systems in fire suppression?

A. They contain a valve in the sprinkler head, with a deflector for the water.

B. When a fire breaks out, the entire system dumps water from all of the sprinkler heads.

C. They displace oxygen in the air below 15 percent to contain the fire.

D. These systems are charged with air or nitrogen.

84 / 120

What is an important aspect that should be included in a network incident document to maintain consistency in reporting incidents and to provide a record of the event?

A. The color of the network cables at the location of the incident

B. The mood of the IT person responsible for handling the incident

C. Summary of what happened during the incident

D. The favorite food of the chief information officer (CIO)

85 / 120

What are the two ways to measure bandwidth?

A. Available bandwidth and frequency

B. Throughput and signal strength

C. Bandwidth utilization and load balancing

D. Available bandwidth and bandwidth utilization or throughput

86 / 120

What is considered a ’runt’ in the context of network frames?

A. A frame larger than 64 bytes

B. A frame smaller than 64 bytes

C. A frame with no collisions

D. A frame with CRC errors

87 / 120

What is Business Continuity as a Service (BCaaS) in the context of cloud sites?

A. It is a cloud-based service designed to assist organizations with data loss recovery

B. It is a full product completely managed by the cloud provider designed for business continuity

C. It is the ongoing cost incurred in maintaining a cloud site

D. It is a method to calculate the value of potential loss in the event of an outage

88 / 120

What is the role of the recovery point objective (RPO) within a backup strategy?

A. Defines the maximum amount of data loss acceptable in the event of a disaster.

B. Specifies the physical backup storage media to be used.

C. It outlines the procedure for data restoration after a disaster.

D. It determines the rotation schedule for retaining backups.

89 / 120

What is a key consideration when trying to provide an active-active configuration for the main site and backup site in a redundancy strategy?

A. How to provide power to both sites

B. Whether to use a cold or warm site

C. How to get traffic to the main site and backup site simultaneously

D. How to design the physical layout of the sites

90 / 120

What are the purposes of HVAC system in a data center?

A. To filter out dust and keep the environmental conditions stable

B. To regulate the temperature of personnel working in the data center

C. Mainly to cool down the servers after a certain period of operation

D. To always maintain a low temperature to avoid overheating of equipments

91 / 120

What does the term ’the nines’ in a service-level agreement (SLA) refer to?

A. The penalty for breaching the contract

B. The percentage of uptime per year

C. The total downtime allowed in a year

D. The number of times a service provider can exceed the SLA

92 / 120

What does CPU utilization imply about the performance of a device on a network?

A. High CPU utilization means the device is underutilized.

B. CPU utilization has no significant connection with a device’s performance.

C. High CPU utilization indicates that the device is doing more work.

D. CPU utilization measures the amount of RAM being used by a device.

93 / 120

What are the major components of a power generator?

A. Fuel, Engine and a Transformer

B. Fuel, Engine and a Generator

C. Engine, Transformer and Cables

D. Fuel, Cables and a Generator

94 / 120

What should the labeling scheme for wiring documentation include?

A. Only the grid coordinates

B. Just the building and room number

C. Building, room, grid coordinates, patch panel, and outlet

D. Patch panel and outlet location only

95 / 120

Which of the following is NOT a valid measure to mitigate the risk of equipment damage caused by flooding?

A. Avoid placing networking equipment in basements or lower levels of a building

B. Consider the location of water pipes, drainage pipes, and HVAC cooling lines

C. Deploy monitoring in areas prone to flooding to get alerts

D. Pour antifreeze directly on the networking equipment

96 / 120

What does humidity below 20 percent risk in server rooms?

A. Short circuits

B. Overheating

C. Overcooling

D. Electrostatic discharge (ESD)

97 / 120

What is the purpose of first-hop redundancy protocols (FHRPs) such as Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) and Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) in a network setting?

A. To block unnecessary traffic and prevent cyber attacks

B. To configure a highly available default gateway by providing a coordinated virtual router

C. To enhance the speed of internet connectivity

D. To manage the internal routing of the network

98 / 120

What is the primary difference between a standby UPS and a line interactive UPS?

A. A line interactive UPS constantly supplies power from the batteries while a standby UPS does not.

B. In a standby UPS, the load must shift from AC to a completely different circuit, while on a line interactive UPS, the inverter is always wired to the load.

C. A standby UPS is used in small server rooms while a line interactive UPS is used for personal computers.

D. A standby UPS supplies a perfect AC signal, unlike a line interactive UPS.

99 / 120

What type of traffic logs are best for understanding traffic patterns to a network based on the source and destinations?

A. Session-based traffic logs

B. Exception-based traffic logs

C. Overview-based traffic logs

D. File-based traffic logs

100 / 120

What is the purpose of a business continuity plan in an organization?

A. To outline how an organization will restore systems after a disaster

B. To detail how an organization will continue to function during a disastrous event

C. To define the roles of different personnel during a disaster

D. To list the systems involved in the recovery effort

101 / 120

Which two factors can make temperature a problem for devices on a network?

A. Image quality and fan speed

B. External environment and internal temperature

C. CPU utilization and RAM utilization

D. Dust accumulation and noise level

102 / 120

Which of the following best describes the role of a disaster recovery plan in an organization as described in the text?

A. It details how to continue business during an outage

B. It outlines how an organization will function during a disastrous event

C. It details how to restore systems so that business functions normally after a disaster

D. It prepares for high risk disasters

103 / 120

What is the main function of an agent in Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)?

A. To host the network management system (NMS)

B. To establish connectivity between two networks

C. To monitor the network devices and operating systems

D. To set up the UDP/TCP configurations

104 / 120

What does the CRC counter in the output of the ’show interface’ command indicate?

A. It shows if there are any layer 2 errors on the interface

B. It shows if the switchport is receiving any frames

C. It shows the number of bytes in a frame

D. It shows if there are any layer 3 errors on the interface

105 / 120

Which of the following is a correct explanation of throughput in a network?

A. The total link speed of a connection

B. The potential bandwidth of a connection

C. The utilization measurement on a connection

D. The time it takes packets to travel from source to destination

106 / 120

Which of the following best describes a power spike as it relates to networking equipment?

A. A sudden decrease in the line voltage that lasts 1/2 second to 3 seconds

B. An increase in line voltage for more than 3 nanoseconds of a power cycle

C. A state when the voltage increases for 1 to 2 nanoseconds

D. A constant supply of power from the batteries of a UPS

107 / 120

What is the purpose of a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) in a network professional context?

A. To determine the employee’s salary

B. To protect the organization from the employee disclosing proprietary information

C. To determine employee’s work schedule

D. To set up the employee’s network credentials

108 / 120

What is the primary function of protocol packets and byte counts in network interface inspection?

A. To identify specific individual packets

B. To evaluate the layer 3 network load

C. To assess the performance of the protocol analyzer

D. To clear counters back to zero

109 / 120

What does an exception-based log signify in Network Traffic Analysis?

A. All traffic flows through the network

B. The start and end of a particular session

C. Hosts on the Internet accessing unauthorized content

D. Top-talkers communicating out of the network

110 / 120

What does the term ’ping and power’ encompass when talking about facilities and infrastructure support for network equipment?

A. Network and power management only

B. Cooling, heating, humidity, and fire suppression

C. Power outages and network failures

D. Maintenance of network equipment

111 / 120

What are some of the purposes of documentation in an IT department?

A. To educate new IT workers

B. To describe normal functionality

C. To record work performed

D. All of the above

112 / 120

What is the function of the standard operating procedures (SOPs) in a quality management system (QMS)?

A. SOPs define the responsibilities and standards associated with each process.

B. SOPs dictate the company’s overall policies.

C. SOPs are mainly used as training material for new employees.

D. SOPs determine the input and output of a process.

113 / 120

What is the role of the ’Agent’ in the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) as described in the text?

A. It is a software that collects and presents specific set of counters or metrics upon a request and sends messages to NMS

B. It is a network management system responsible for collecting statistics

C. It is a command method used by NMS to retrieve or set values on a device

D. It is responsible for configuring TCP for moving data across the Internet

114 / 120

What does a hot site in a disaster recovery strategy refer to?

A. A location with minimal equipment as a backup solution

B. A site with equipment that resumes partial primary site network operations

C. A site with full equipment setup to resume complete primary site’s network operations

D. A site used for storage and backup of less critical data

115 / 120

What is the primary purpose of creating a baseline configuration for a network device or system?

A. To ensure that all devices and systems are identically secured

B. To guarantee that no services are turned off

C. To unify the management IP addresses

D. To provide a distinct admin username and password for each device

116 / 120

What is the purpose of environmental sensors in network equipment?

A. To enhance the physical appearance of the network equipment

B. They allow for monitoring temperature, humidity, electricity, and flooding

C. To increase the speed of the network

D. To produce audible sound during connection errors

117 / 120

What are the three purposes of rack diagrams as mentioned in the CompTIA Network+ study materials?

A. Locating servers, planning new server locations, wiring details

B. Allocating storage space, planning new server locations, setting up rack security

C. Locating servers, detailing software configurations, managing network connections

D. Allocating storage space, managing hardware, planning IT budget

118 / 120

What is the purpose of the community name in SNMP versions 1 and 2c?

A. It acts as the main authentication method

B. It is used to support large counters

C. It acts as a shared passphrase authentication

D. It provides encryption for SNMP commands

119 / 120

What is the primary purpose of a Nondisclosure Agreement (NDA) in an organization?

A. To provide employees with administrative system passwords

B. To legally protect the organization from an employee disclosing proprietary information

C. To define the HR department’s role in disclosure issues

D. To determine who the stakeholders are in the organization

120 / 120

What is the primary function of a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system?

A. To educate end users about safe online practices

B. To sanitize or restrict sensitive information from being sent outside of the organization

C. To provide a hard control for administrators to block all outgoing emails

D. To classify data based on their sensitivity and publicize the information to the entire organization

Your score is

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